A 24-year-old secretary comes to your clinic, complaining of difficulty sleeping, severe nightmares, and irritability. She states it all began 6 months ago when she went to a fast food restaurant at midnight. While she was waiting in her car a man entered through the passenger door and put a gun to her head. He had her drive to a remote area, where he took her money and threatened to kill her. When the gun jammed he panicked and ran off. Ever since this occurred the patient has been having these symptoms. She states she jumps at every noise and refuses to drive at night. She states her anxiety has had such a marked influence on her job performance she is afraid she will be fired. She denies any recent illnesses or injuries. Her past medical history is unremarkable. On examination you find a nervous woman appearing her stated age. Her physical examination is unremarkable. You recommend medication and counseling. What anxiety disorder to you think this young woman has?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The young woman in this scenario is experiencing symptoms consistent with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). PTSD is an anxiety disorder that can develop after a person is exposed to a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation like a robbery with a gun involved. The symptoms she is experiencing, including difficulty sleeping, severe nightmares, irritability, hypervigilance, and avoidance of triggers such as driving at night, are all classic features of PTSD. These symptoms have persisted for at least 6 months since the traumatic event occurred, which is a key criterion for making a diagnosis of PTSD. Treatment for PTSD typically involves a combination of medication and therapy to help the individual process and cope with the traumatic experience.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Venous insufficiency is the most likely etiology for the painful ulcerative lesion near the medial malleolus with accompanying hyperpigmentation. Venous insufficiency can lead to the development of venous stasis ulcers, which typically occur on the lower extremities, especially around the ankle area. These ulcers are often painful and associated with swelling, hyperpigmentation, and a weeping or moist wound bed. The location of the ulcer near the medial malleolus is also characteristic of venous insufficiency-related ulcers. Arterial insufficiency would typically present with different clinical findings, such as a pale, cool extremity, decreased pulses, and hair loss. Neuropathic ulcers are usually painless due to the loss of sensation, and trauma would have a different appearance than the described findings.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A subconjunctival hemorrhage is a common and benign condition characterized by blood in the space between the conjunctiva and sclera of the eye. The condition often presents as a painless, sharply demarcated area of redness on the white part of the eye, typically without associated discharge or visual disturbances. In this case, the absence of eye pain, discharge, visual disturbances, and clear cornea make subconjunctival hemorrhage the most likely diagnosis. The history of forceful coughing with a recent cold is also consistent with the increased intraocular pressure leading to a rupture of a small blood vessel, resulting in the hemorrhage. Treatment is not usually required as the condition is self-limiting and resolves on its own over time.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The young woman in this scenario is experiencing symptoms consistent with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). PTSD is an anxiety disorder that can develop after a person is exposed to a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation like a robbery with a gun involved. The symptoms she is experiencing, including difficulty sleeping, severe nightmares, irritability, hypervigilance, and avoidance of triggers such as driving at night, are all classic features of PTSD. These symptoms have persisted for at least 6 months since the traumatic event occurred, which is a key criterion for making a diagnosis of PTSD. Treatment for PTSD typically involves a combination of medication and therapy to help the individual process and cope with the traumatic experience.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient described is most likely suffering from an external hemorrhoid. External hemorrhoids are swollen veins located near the opening of the anus, often resulting from increased pressure in the rectal area. The presence of a swollen bluish ovoid mass containing a blood clot is characteristic of an external hemorrhoid. The pain experienced during digital rectal examination further supports this diagnosis, as external hemorrhoids are typically painful when touched. In this case, there are no palpable masses within the anus or rectum, ruling out anorectal cancer or internal hemorrhoids. Anal fissures are small tears in the lining of the anus, which would present differently from the described swollen mass with a blood clot.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The information provided, specifically about the patient having three cesarean sections, is most appropriate to be placed under the Obstetrics/gynecology category. This category focuses on the healthcare of women, particularly during pregnancy, childbirth, and postpartum period, which includes details about cesarean sections. This information is not related to adult illnesses, surgeries in general, or psychiatric conditions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Leaning forward in the upright position increases venous return and systemic vascular resistance, which can help accentuate the intensity of aortic regurgitation murmur. This position helps to bring the heart closer to the chest wall, making the murmur easier to auscultate and potentially increasing its intensity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The description of dark, granular material resembling coffee grounds in the vomitus suggests upper gastrointestinal bleeding. One common cause of upper GI bleeding is a peptic ulcer, which can present with symptoms such as vomiting blood or coffee ground material. Peptic ulcers can develop in the stomach or the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum). Risk factors for peptic ulcers include infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria, the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), smoking, and alcohol consumption. Prompt evaluation and management are necessary in cases of upper GI bleeding to address the underlying cause and prevent complications.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The description provided indicates a presentation consistent with gonococcal arthritis. Gonococcal arthritis is an infectious arthritis caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Symptoms typically include red, swollen, and painful joints, especially affecting the distal joints of the limbs. The presence of papules, pustules, and vesicles on reddened bases at the distal extremities is characteristic of disseminated gonococcal infection. In women, the DIP joint involvement in the finger can be indicative of this condition. Prompt diagnosis and treatment with antibiotics are essential to prevent complications associated with gonococcal arthritis. It is important to consider a sexually transmitted infection like gonorrhea in young patients presenting with joint symptoms and cutaneous findings.