ATI RN
Drugs Affecting the Female Reproductive System NCLEX Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 24-year-old patient tells the nurse that she would like to use the progestin-only pill for contraception. Nursing evaluation of this patient as a candidate for the progestin-only pill includes what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing patient reliability in taking an oral pill daily is crucial for the effectiveness of progestin-only pills. This type of contraceptive requires strict adherence to daily dosing. Option A is incorrect because prior childbirth does not impact eligibility for progestin-only pills. Option B is incorrect as regular periods are not a requirement for this contraceptive method. Option D is irrelevant as smoking history is not a determining factor for using progestin-only pills.
Question 2 of 5
A patient is given corticotropin. The nurse knows to monitor the patient for which condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. Corticotropin is a hormone that stimulates the production of cortisol, which can lead to increased glucose utilization and lower blood sugar levels. Therefore, monitoring for hypoglycemia is crucial. Weight gain (A) is not typically associated with corticotropin. Hyperkalemia (B) is more commonly seen with medications like ACE inhibitors. Dehydration (D) is not a common side effect of corticotropin.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is to receive insulin before breakfast, and
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Regular insulin. Regular insulin should be administered before breakfast as it has an onset of action of about 30 minutes to 1 hour, making it suitable for pre-meal administration. NPH insulin (choice B) has a slower onset and is typically given before dinner. Lispro insulin (choice C) is a rapid-acting insulin that is also given before meals but has a quicker onset than Regular insulin. Choice A is incorrect because Regular insulin does not need to wait for the breakfast tray to arrive, unlike some other insulins that require food intake.
Question 4 of 5
A patient complains about a burning sensation and pain when urinating. Which urinary analgesic does the nurse suspect will be ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Phenazopyridine. This urinary analgesic is commonly used to relieve pain, burning sensation, and discomfort associated with urinary tract infections or other urinary conditions. It works by numbing the urinary tract lining. Tolterodine (A) and Oxybutynin (B) are anticholinergic medications used to treat overactive bladder, not urinary pain. Bethanechol (C) is a cholinergic medication used to increase bladder muscle tone, not for urinary pain relief.
Question 5 of 5
Which drug has GI disturbances as a major side effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Voglibose. Voglibose is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor commonly used in diabetes management. Its major side effect is GI disturbances due to its mechanism of action in delaying carbohydrate absorption in the intestines. This can lead to flatulence, bloating, and diarrhea. Metformin (choice A) commonly causes GI upset but is not its major side effect. Rosiglitazone (choice B) is associated with weight gain and edema, not GI disturbances. Repaglinide (choice D) can cause hypoglycemia and weight gain, but not major GI disturbances.