ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 24 year old patient is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection. Which of the following agents is indicated for use in this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Valacyclovir. Valacyclovir is a prodrug of acyclovir, which is the first-line treatment for genital herpes simplex virus infection. Acyclovir inhibits viral DNA synthesis by competing with deoxyguanosine triphosphate for viral DNA polymerase. This leads to the termination of viral replication. Lamivudine (A) is used for HIV and hepatitis B infections. Cidofovir (B) is used for cytomegalovirus and other DNA virus infections, but not for herpes simplex virus. Zanamivir (D) is used for influenza viruses, not herpes simplex virus.
Question 2 of 5
A patient is prescribed ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin transdermal contraceptive patch. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates an understanding of the use of this drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. The patient stating "I will remove the patch each month and replace it with a new patch 1 week later" indicates understanding of the correct usage of the contraceptive patch. 2. Ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin are combined hormonal contraceptives that require a once-weekly application for 3 weeks followed by a patch-free week to allow for menstruation. 3. This statement reflects proper adherence to the dosing schedule, ensuring continuous contraceptive efficacy and hormone levels. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A. The patch does not act as a physical barrier; it releases hormones to prevent pregnancy. B. Ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin are combined hormonal contraceptives, not progestin-only, so side effects may vary. D. The patch should be applied to the skin, not in the vaginal area, and is not meant for immediate use before intercourse.
Question 3 of 5
Why should Sumatriptan be used with caution in a patient with angina?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Sumatriptan, a triptan medication used for migraine treatment, can cause vasoconstriction of blood vessels including the coronary arteries. This vasoconstriction can lead to reduced blood flow to the heart, potentially precipitating an anginal attack in a patient with angina. Choices C and D are incorrect as they also mention vasoconstriction but do not specifically link it to triggering an anginal attack. Choice A is incorrect as it does not provide any relevant information.
Question 4 of 5
Thyroxine has recently been added to the routine medications for a patient who also uses insulin, warfarin, cholestyramine, and antacids daily. Which statement should be included in the patient's medication education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: - Thyroxine (levothyroxine) is best absorbed on an empty stomach, so it should be taken at least 4 hours apart from medications like cholestyramine, which can interfere with its absorption. - Option A is incorrect because aluminum-containing antacids do not directly interact with levothyroxine. - Option B is incorrect as the dosage of insulin is not typically affected by levothyroxine. - Option D is incorrect as levothyroxine does not directly impact warfarin dosage.
Question 5 of 5
Metformin most likely causes which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased insulin sensitivity. Metformin works by decreasing hepatic glucose production, increasing peripheral glucose uptake, and improving insulin sensitivity in tissues. It does not increase gluconeogenesis (A), decrease GI glucose absorption (C), or increase pancreatic insulin release (D). By enhancing insulin sensitivity, Metformin helps lower blood glucose levels in individuals with type 2 diabetes.