A 24-year-old man with a history of partial seizures has been treated with standard anticonvulsants for several years. He is currently taking valproic acid, which is not fully effective, and his neurologist prescribes a new drug. Unfortunately, the patient develops toxic epidermal necrolysis. The new drug prescribed was

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Pharmacology CNS Drugs Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 24-year-old man with a history of partial seizures has been treated with standard anticonvulsants for several years. He is currently taking valproic acid, which is not fully effective, and his neurologist prescribes a new drug. Unfortunately, the patient develops toxic epidermal necrolysis. The new drug prescribed was

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Lamotrigine. Lamotrigine is a commonly used anticonvulsant that has shown efficacy in treating partial seizures. It is known to have a lower risk of causing severe skin reactions compared to other anticonvulsants like carbamazepine or phenytoin. Felbamate (A) is associated with a higher risk of causing serious adverse effects, including aplastic anemia and hepatic failure, but not specifically toxic epidermal necrolysis. Gabapentin (B) and Tiagabine (D) are anticonvulsants used to treat seizures but are not typically associated with causing toxic epidermal necrolysis. Educationally, understanding the side effect profiles of different anticonvulsants is crucial for healthcare providers when selecting appropriate medications for patients with seizure disorders. Lamotrigine's lower risk of causing severe skin reactions makes it a favorable choice for individuals who may be predisposed to such reactions, as seen in the case of the patient developing toxic epidermal necrolysis.

Question 2 of 5

An overdose victim presents to the emergency department with an elevated heart rate, decreased blood pressure, dilated pupils, and lethargy, upon arrival to the ICU, she has a generalized tonic-clonic seizure that is treated with IV diazepam and fosphenytoin. Which of the following is the most likely intoxicant?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Amitriptyline. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including tachycardia, hypotension, dilated pupils, and central nervous system depression leading to lethargy and seizures. The administration of IV diazepam and fosphenytoin to treat the seizure further supports this as they are commonly used in tricyclic antidepressant overdose. Option B) Methanol typically presents with metabolic acidosis and visual disturbances rather than the symptoms described in the case. Option C) Acetaminophen overdose is associated with liver toxicity and not the constellation of symptoms presented. Option D) Oxycodone overdose would more likely present with respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils, which are not seen in this case. Understanding the signs and symptoms of different drug overdoses is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate and timely interventions. Recognizing the specific manifestations of various intoxicants can guide treatment decisions and improve patient outcomes. By linking theoretical knowledge with practical application in clinical scenarios, learners can enhance their diagnostic skills and decision-making abilities in real-world healthcare settings.

Question 3 of 5

Phenytoin is effective for the treatment of all of the following types of seizures except

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Phenytoin is a widely used antiepileptic drug that is effective for treating generalized tonic-clonic, simple partial, and complex partial seizures. However, it is not effective in treating absence seizures. The correct answer is D) Absence because phenytoin works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels, which helps control the rapid firing of neurons seen in tonic-clonic and partial seizures. Absence seizures involve a different mechanism, primarily involving thalamic T-type calcium channels, which phenytoin does not effectively target. Generalized tonic-clonic, simple partial, and complex partial seizures are types of seizures where phenytoin's mechanism of action is beneficial, making them responsive to this medication. Understanding the specific mechanisms of action of different antiepileptic drugs is crucial in selecting the appropriate treatment for different types of seizures, as not all medications are effective for all seizure types. This knowledge helps healthcare providers tailor treatment plans to individual patients, optimizing seizure control and minimizing side effects.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following mechanisms of action most likely contributes to the treatment of parkinsonism?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) The antimuscarinic activity of diphenhydramine contributes to the restoration of striatal dopaminergic-cholinergic neurotransmitter balance in the treatment of parkinsonism. In parkinsonism, there is an imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine in the brain, leading to motor symptoms. Diphenhydramine, an antimuscarinic agent, helps rebalance this by blocking the muscarinic receptors, which in turn reduces the inhibitory effect of acetylcholine on the dopaminergic pathways. Option A is incorrect because amantadine acts primarily by enhancing the release of dopamine rather than mimicking its activity. Option C is incorrect as trihexyphenidyl is an anticholinergic medication, not an antihistaminic one. Option D is incorrect as bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist that directly stimulates dopamine receptors, rather than releasing dopamine from intact terminals. Educationally, understanding the mechanisms of action of drugs used in parkinsonism is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions in patient care. This knowledge helps in selecting the most appropriate medication based on the underlying pathophysiology of the condition, thereby optimizing treatment outcomes for patients with parkinsonism.

Question 5 of 5

Phenytoin is effective for the treatment of all of the following types of seizures except

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Phenytoin is a commonly used antiepileptic drug that primarily works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels in the brain, stabilizing neuronal membranes, and reducing excessive neuronal firing. The correct answer, D) Absence seizures, is the correct choice because phenytoin is not effective in treating absence seizures. Absence seizures, also known as petit mal seizures, are characterized by brief lapses of consciousness and staring spells, and they involve a different underlying mechanism compared to the other types of seizures listed. A) Generalized tonic-clonic seizures, B) Simple partial seizures, and C) Complex partial seizures are all types of seizures that phenytoin is effective in treating. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures involve both sides of the brain and result in loss of consciousness and convulsions. Simple partial seizures, also known as focal onset aware seizures, originate in one area of the brain and do not involve loss of consciousness. Complex partial seizures, or focal onset impaired awareness seizures, also begin in a specific area of the brain and can lead to altered consciousness or unresponsiveness. In an educational context, understanding the specific indications for antiepileptic drugs like phenytoin is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working in neurology, emergency medicine, or primary care settings where they may encounter patients with various types of seizures. By knowing which types of seizures a medication is effective for, healthcare providers can make informed decisions regarding treatment plans to optimize patient outcomes and minimize adverse effects.

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