ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 24-year-old beautician has a history of chronic fatigue since an attack of infectious mononucleosis when aged 20. Her fatigue has become progressively worse. Her periods are painful, heavy and irregular. Her BP is 116/62 (supine) and 92/52 (standing). Serum Na+ is 132, K+ 5.5, creatinine 60 μmol/L. Which of the following would be most appropriate management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fatigue, orthostatic hypotension (116/62 to 92/52), hyponatremia (Na+ 132), and hyperkalemia (K+ 5.5) post-mononucleosis suggest Addison's disease (adrenal insufficiency). Fludrocortisone treats mineralocorticoid deficiency but needs diagnosis first. CBT addresses fatigue psychologically, not endocrine causes. Aciclovir treats viral infections, irrelevant here. Tetracosactide (Synacthen) tests adrenal function, diagnosing Addison's by cortisol response, most appropriate to confirm before lifelong therapy. This diagnostic step ensures accurate management, critical in suspected adrenal failure.
Question 2 of 5
The nursing instructor teaches the student nurses about the pharmacological classification of drugs. The instructor evaluates that learning has occurred when the students make which response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pharmacological classification groups drugs by mechanism-anticoagulants influence clotting by inhibiting factors like thrombin, a precise definition. Anti-anginal and antihypertensive describe therapeutic effects, not mechanisms. Calcium channel blockers' action is mechanistic but less broad than clotting's systemic impact. Anticoagulants' specific role in coagulation reflects accurate classification understanding, key for pharmacology learning.
Question 3 of 5
When administering a standard or median effective dose to a patient, the nurse explains that this amount of drug will have which effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Median effective dose (ED50) affects 50% of a population, a statistical pharmacodynamic measure, not individual guarantee. No adverse effects isn't assured-safety varies. Metabolism timing depends on half-life, not ED50. Majority effectiveness exceeds 50%. Half the population defines ED50, explaining its intent.
Question 4 of 5
The patient tells the nurse, 'I thought I was just depressed, but my doctor says I have bipolar disorder. What is that?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bipolar disorder features mood cycles-depression and mania (hyperactivity)-per DSM-5, distinct from unipolar depression. It's not just cyclic depression, nor ADHD-linked. Seasonal shifts are separate (SAD). Mania-depression cycles define it, clarifying diagnosis.
Question 5 of 5
A 22-year-old woman ingests an entire bottle of acetaminophen in an attempted suicide. She unexpectedly feels well for the next 24 h, at which time her boyfriend discovers what she has done and takes her to the ER. The toxic metabolite of acetaminophen exerts its deleterious effect by what mechanism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose initially presents asymptomatically, but its toxic metabolite, NAPQI, causes delayed harm. Option , depletion of endogenous antioxidants (glutathione), is correct-NAPQI, formed via CYP450 metabolism, overwhelms glutathione, leading to oxidative stress and hepatotoxicity. Option , hapten formation, occurs with some drugs but not acetaminophen's primary toxicity. Option , cytochrome C oxidase inhibition, is cyanide's mechanism, not acetaminophen's. Option , ischemia from reduced blood flow, isn't the issue-damage is metabolic. Option (E), gallbladder paralysis, is irrelevant. NAPQI's glutathione depletion disrupts detoxification, causing centrilobular necrosis, explaining the delayed presentation and justifying urgent treatment like N-acetylcysteine to replenish glutathione.