ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 24-year-old beautician has a history of chronic fatigue since an attack of infectious mononucleosis when aged 20. Her fatigue has become progressively worse. Her periods are painful, heavy and irregular. Her BP is 116/62 (supine) and 92/52 (standing). Serum Na+ is 132, K+ 5.5, creatinine 60 μmol/L. Which of the following would be most appropriate management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fatigue, orthostatic hypotension (116/62 to 92/52), hyponatremia (Na+ 132), and hyperkalemia (K+ 5.5) post-mononucleosis suggest Addison's disease (adrenal insufficiency). Fludrocortisone treats mineralocorticoid deficiency but needs diagnosis first. CBT addresses fatigue psychologically, not endocrine causes. Aciclovir treats viral infections, irrelevant here. Tetracosactide (Synacthen) tests adrenal function, diagnosing Addison's by cortisol response, most appropriate to confirm before lifelong therapy. This diagnostic step ensures accurate management, critical in suspected adrenal failure.
Question 2 of 5
A client with juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma who is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) 4mg/IV every 6 hours to relieve symptoms of right arm weakness and headache. Which of the following assessments will concern the nurse most?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dexamethasone (Decadron) is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and edema in brain tumors. A client no longer recognizing family members indicates a potential worsening of neurological status, such as increased intracranial pressure or tumor progression, which is a critical concern. Elevated blood glucose and weight gain are common side effects of steroids but are less urgent. Persistent headaches are expected but less concerning than cognitive changes. Therefore, cognitive decline is the most alarming assessment.
Question 3 of 5
A 33-year-old man with a history of chronic epididymoorchitis is treated with long-term tetracycline antibiotic therapy. During the 3 months of therapy, he develops discoloration of his teeth. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tetracycline causes tooth discoloration by binding to calcium in developing teeth . Drug toxicity is vague. Folate synthesis , hepatic enzymes , and osteoclasts (E) aren't involved. This chelation stains enamel, a known effect with prolonged use.
Question 4 of 5
A patient complains about a burning sensation and pain when urinating. Which urinary analgesic does the nurse suspect will be ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic commonly used to relieve the burning sensation and pain experienced during urination, typically caused by urinary tract infection or irritation. It works by acting as a local anesthetic on the lining of the urinary tract, providing relief from discomfort. Tolterodine and oxybutynin are used to treat overactive bladder by reducing bladder spasms and urge incontinence, whereas bethanechol is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist primarily used to stimulate bladder contractions in individuals with urinary retention. Thus, for the symptom of burning sensation and pain when urinating, phenazopyridine would be the most likely urinary analgesic to be ordered.
Question 5 of 5
A 22-year-old woman ingests an entire bottle of acetaminophen in an attempted suicide. She unexpectedly feels well for the next 24 h, at which time her boyfriend discovers what she has done and takes her to the ER. The toxic metabolite of acetaminophen exerts its deleterious effect by what mechanism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose initially presents asymptomatically, but its toxic metabolite, NAPQI, causes delayed harm. Option , depletion of endogenous antioxidants (glutathione), is correct-NAPQI, formed via CYP450 metabolism, overwhelms glutathione, leading to oxidative stress and hepatotoxicity. Option , hapten formation, occurs with some drugs but not acetaminophen's primary toxicity. Option , cytochrome C oxidase inhibition, is cyanide's mechanism, not acetaminophen's. Option , ischemia from reduced blood flow, isn't the issue-damage is metabolic. Option (E), gallbladder paralysis, is irrelevant. NAPQI's glutathione depletion disrupts detoxification, causing centrilobular necrosis, explaining the delayed presentation and justifying urgent treatment like N-acetylcysteine to replenish glutathione.