ATI RN
microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 23-year old medical student arrives in the student health clinic complaining of difficult in swallowing, sore throat, and chills. Upon examination, she is found to be running a fever and has white patches on her tonsils. A throat swab is positive for streptococcus pyogenes (group A). A diagnosis of acute pharyngitis is made. Her past medical history is unremarkable except an anaphylactic reaction to cefaclor two years ago. Which of the following would be a safe alternative for treating?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clindamycin. Clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic that is safe to use in patients with a history of anaphylaxis to beta-lactam antibiotics like cefaclor. Clindamycin is effective against streptococcus pyogenes and is a suitable alternative in this case. Amoxicillin (choice A) is a beta-lactam antibiotic similar to cefaclor and may cause a cross-reactive allergic reaction. Meropenem (choice B) is a carbapenem antibiotic and not typically used for acute pharyngitis. Cephalexin (choice C) is a cephalosporin antibiotic and may also cause cross-reactivity in patients with a history of anaphylaxis to cefaclor.
Question 2 of 9
Which organism is responsible for cholera?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by this specific bacterium. Vibrio cholerae produces a toxin that leads to severe diarrhea and dehydration. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, Escherichia coli can cause various infections but not cholera, and Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not cholera. Therefore, the correct choice is B.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a sore throat had a throat smear revealing Gram-positive cocci in pairs. The bacteria were catalase-negative and beta-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in pairs suggest Streptococcus species. 2. Catalase-negative rules out Staphylococcus. 3. Beta-hemolytic indicates Streptococcus pyogenes due to its beta-hemolytic properties. Summary: B: Streptococcus pneumoniae is catalase-negative but not beta-hemolytic. C: Enterococcus faecalis is not typically beta-hemolytic. D: Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and not typically in pairs.
Question 4 of 9
Aflatoxins are produced by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Genus Aspergillus. Aflatoxins are toxic compounds produced by certain species of fungi, particularly Aspergillus species. Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus are well-known producers of aflatoxins. These fungi can contaminate crops such as peanuts, corn, and tree nuts, leading to potential health risks. Cryptococcus (A), Actinomyces (B), and Streptococcus (C) are not known to produce aflatoxins. It is important to be aware of the sources and implications of aflatoxin contamination to ensure food safety and public health.
Question 5 of 9
Some of the viruses have a cubic type of symmetry, which in the shape of
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: icosahedral structure. Icosahedral symmetry is common in viruses due to its efficient packing of genetic material. It consists of 20 equilateral triangular faces and 12 vertices. This symmetry allows viruses to have a stable structure and optimal capacity for encapsulating their genetic material. A: Tetrahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 4 faces and is not commonly found in viruses. B: Hexahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 6 faces and is not a common symmetry type in viruses. C: Dodecahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 12 faces and is not typically seen in viruses. In summary, the icosahedral structure is the correct choice due to its stability, efficient packing, and common presence in viral structures compared to the other options.
Question 6 of 9
A wound culture from a patient with an infected ulcer revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative characteristics indicate Staphylococcus species. Specifically, Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal and a frequent cause of wound infections. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive, making it less likely in this scenario. Streptococcus pyogenes and Enterococcus faecalis are both Gram-positive cocci but are catalase-negative, making them less likely causative agents.
Question 7 of 9
A bacteriological laboratory tests canned meat for botulinum toxin. Extract of the tested material and ABE botulinum antitoxin serum was introduced into the test group of mice; a control group of mice received the extract without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was used?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this experiment, the ABE botulinum antitoxin serum is introduced along with the extract to neutralize the botulinum toxin. This is a specific type of serological reaction where the antitoxin serum binds to and neutralizes the toxin, preventing it from causing harm. Summary: - B: Precipitation involves the formation of visible insoluble complexes, which is not the case in this experiment. - C: Complement binding involves the activation of complement proteins, which is not the main mechanism at play here. - D: Double immunodiffusion is a technique to detect the presence of specific antigens or antibodies, but it is not directly related to the neutralization of toxins as seen in this experiment.
Question 8 of 9
Nonchromosomal DNA molecules found in a bacterial cell are
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: plasmids. Plasmids are nonchromosomal DNA molecules commonly found in bacterial cells, providing additional genetic material for bacteria. They are not essential for bacterial survival but can confer advantages such as antibiotic resistance. Endospores (A) are dormant bacterial structures resistant to harsh conditions. Transposons (B) are mobile genetic elements that can move within a genome. Prions (D) are misfolded proteins causing neurodegenerative diseases, not DNA molecules.
Question 9 of 9
An adult patient with type 2 diabetes attends the emergency room. He reported that two days ago he was accidentally injured in the left leg, but he did not seek medical care. At the time of examination, an infected wound was found, surrounded by a large area of inflammation with characteristic tissue crepitation on palpation and with foul odor. Blood (for hemoculture) and wound secretions were taken for microbiological testing. The microscopic examination reveals large Gram-positive bacteria, with centrally located spores. These bacteria were unable to grow in vitro at presence of oxygen. The most likely cause of this disease is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium perfringens. In this case, the patient's presentation of infected wound with tissue crepitation, foul odor, and Gram-positive bacteria with centrally located spores that cannot grow in the presence of oxygen is indicative of gas gangrene caused by Clostridium perfringens. This anaerobic bacterium produces various toxins that lead to tissue destruction and gas production in the affected area. Clostridium tetani (choice A) causes tetanus, characterized by muscle stiffness and spasms. Clostridium botulinum (choice C) causes botulism, leading to muscle paralysis. Clostridium difficile (choice D) is associated with antibiotic-associated diarrhea. These choices are incorrect as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the question.