ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 2 Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 23-year-old female patient presents at the clinic with a migraine headache. What beta-adrenergic blocking agent might the physician prescribe for the prophylactic prevention of future migraine headaches?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol is indicated for the treatment of hypertension, angina pectoris, idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis, supraventricular tachycardia, tremor; prevention of reinfarction after myocardial infarction; adjunctive therapy in pheochromocytoma; prophylaxis of migraine headache; and management of situational anxiety. The other options do not treat or prevent migraine headaches. The nurse should understand the indications for propranolol to ensure safe and effective administration.
Question 2 of 5
A client is receiving methocarbamol (Robaxin) as an adjunct to physical therapy for the relief of painful muscle discomfort. Which of the following is not true regarding the use of the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Methocarbamol can cause urine discoloration, and rapid intravenous administration may lead to hypotension and bradycardia. However, the use of cold or allergy medicines does not lessen its side effects. The parenteral form is contraindicated in patients with liver damage due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. This statement is incorrect and not supported by the drug's pharmacology.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is instructing a client regarding carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease. The nurse tells the client which of the following indicates an overdose of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An overdose of carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) can cause excessive dopaminergic stimulation, leading to dyskinesias or difficulty performing voluntary movements. Increased blood pressure, decreased appetite, and black tarry stools are not typical signs of overdose. Therefore, difficulty with voluntary movement is the correct indicator of overdose.
Question 4 of 5
A 56-year-old man with progressive, chronic renal impairment is awaiting renal replacement therapy. His treatment includes calcium carbonate tablets, furosemide, irbesartan and amlodipine. He is admitted severely unwell with a BP of 40 by palpation, pulse 112. An ECG shows a broad complex tachycardia with no P waves. Serum Ca2+ is 2.3 mmol/L, PO4 1.7 mmol/L, creatinine 785 μmol/L, Na+ 142 mmol/L, K+ 7.4 mmol/L. Which of the following would be appropriate management?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia (K+ 7.4 mmol/L) in renal failure causes broad complex tachycardia, risking arrest. Amiodarone treats arrhythmias but not hyperkalemia's cause. Digoxin is contraindicated in hyperkalemia and renal failure. IV calcium gluconate stabilizes cardiac membranes, countering potassium's depolarizing effect, appropriate immediate management. Pacing or colestyramine (potassium binder) are secondary. Calcium's rapid action protects the heart, buying time for dialysis, critical in this life-threatening scenario.
Question 5 of 5
Trimethoprim:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, not activates it, blocking folate synthesis in bacteria, so that's false. It's a weak base, a true statement, aiding its concentration in acidic environments like urine. It has good prostate penetration, effective in prostatitis, making that false. It distributes into CSF, useful in meningitis, so that's incorrect. It's teratogenic, not harmless in pregnancy. Its basic nature enhances its antibacterial efficacy, a key pharmacokinetic advantage in urinary tract infections.