A 23 year old female patient complains about periodical chill and body temperature rise up to 40oC, sense of heat taking turns with profuse sweating. The patient has had already 3 attacks that came once in two days and lasted 12 hours. She has lived in Africa for the last 2 months. Liver and spleen are enlarged. In blood: erythrocytes - 2,5x1012/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Questions 82

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

McGraw Hill Microbiology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 23 year old female patient complains about periodical chill and body temperature rise up to 40oC, sense of heat taking turns with profuse sweating. The patient has had already 3 attacks that came once in two days and lasted 12 hours. She has lived in Africa for the last 2 months. Liver and spleen are enlarged. In blood: erythrocytes - 2,5x1012/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Malaria. The patient's symptoms of periodic chills, high fever, and profuse sweating, along with living in Africa where malaria is endemic, strongly suggest malaria. The enlarged liver and spleen are consistent with malaria infection. The low erythrocyte count indicates hemolysis, a common feature of malaria. Spotted fever and sepsis do not typically present with the same pattern of symptoms and travel history as seen in this case. Haemolytic anaemia would not explain the patient's fever episodes and other symptoms. Therefore, based on the symptoms, travel history, and laboratory findings, malaria is the most likely diagnosis.

Question 2 of 9

Transcription of viral nucleic acid to mRNA is not needed in the case of:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Positive strand RNA viruses. These viruses have RNA genomes that can be directly translated by host ribosomes without the need for transcription. In contrast, single-strand DNA and double-strand DNA viruses require transcription to generate mRNA for translation. Choice A is incorrect as there is a correct answer. Choice B and C are incorrect because both single-strand DNA and double-strand DNA viruses require transcription for mRNA synthesis.

Question 3 of 9

The colonies of the fungi that grow on solid media are called:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycelium. Mycelium refers to the network of branching filaments that form the main body of a fungus. When fungi grow on solid media, they develop a visible mass of mycelium. Hyphae (A) are the individual filaments that make up mycelium. Spores (C) are reproductive cells produced by fungi. Columella (D) refers to a specialized structure found in some fungi but is not related to the colonies grown on solid media. Therefore, the correct term for the colonies of fungi on solid media is mycelium.

Question 4 of 9

A patient has wound abscess. Bacteriological examination of the wound content revealed a gram- negative bacillus which forms semi-transparent mucous colonies of blue-green color with a pearlescent appearance on the beef-extract agar. Culture has a specific odor of violets or jasmine. What type of pathogen was isolated from the patient's wound?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative bacillus indicates P. aeruginosa, known for causing wound infections. Step 2: Semi-transparent mucous colonies of blue-green color with a pearlescent appearance are characteristic of P. aeruginosa. Step 3: Specific odor of violets or jasmine is a unique feature of P. aeruginosa. Therefore, the correct answer is A: P. aeruginosa. Summary: - B: P. vulgaris typically forms yellow colonies and doesn't have the characteristic odor. - C: S. aureus forms creamy white colonies, not blue-green, and has a distinct odor. - D: S. pyogenes forms grayish-white colonies and doesn't have the unique characteristics described.

Question 5 of 9

In order to accurately identify etiology of peptic ulcer disease, polymerase chain reaction (PCR) analysis was performed on gastric biopsy specimen taken from 47-year-old patient. Eventually, the test result was positive for H. pylori. Which of the following was most likely detected in PCR analysis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial DNA. PCR analysis detects specific DNA sequences, so a positive result for H. pylori indicates the presence of the bacterial DNA in the gastric biopsy specimen. This method identifies the genetic material of the bacterium, not the bacterium itself (choice C) or its toxins (choice B). Additionally, PCR does not directly detect bacterial enzymes (choice D) but rather focuses on genetic material for accurate identification. Therefore, in this case, the detection of H. pylori in the PCR analysis points to the presence of bacterial DNA, confirming the etiology of peptic ulcer disease.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following diseases can be transmitted by a tick?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tularemia. Ticks can transmit tularemia, a bacterial infection caused by Francisella tularensis. Ticks pick up the bacteria when feeding on infected animals and can then transmit it to humans through their bites. Botulism (A) is caused by toxins produced by Clostridium botulinum bacteria, not transmitted by ticks. Anthrax (B) is a bacterial infection caused by Bacillus anthracis, typically transmitted through contact with contaminated animal products. MRSA (D) is a bacterial infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus, commonly transmitted through direct contact with infected individuals or contaminated surfaces, not by ticks.

Question 7 of 9

Viral capsomeres are composed of subunits called

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: protomeres. Viral capsomeres are the building blocks of viral capsids, which are protein coats that enclose and protect the viral genetic material. These capsomeres are made up of smaller subunits called protomeres. Envelopes (A) refer to a lipid membrane surrounding some viruses, not the subunits of capsomeres. Capsids (C) are the protein coats that capsomeres make up, not the subunits themselves. Nucleoids (D) are found in bacterial cells and refer to the region where the genetic material is located, not the subunits of viral capsomeres.

Question 8 of 9

A patient with pneumonia had sputum cultured, revealing Gram-negative diplococci. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus that is oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Gram-negative diplococcus, but it is not fermentative. Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae is Gram-negative but is not a diplococcus, and it is not fermentative. Therefore, based on the characteristics provided in the question, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent.

Question 9 of 9

The causative agent of syphilis is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Treponema pallidum. 1. Treponema pallidum is a spirochete bacterium known to cause syphilis. 2. Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme disease, not syphilis. 3. Leptospira interrogans causes leptospirosis, not syphilis. 4. Rickettsia rickettsii causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever, not syphilis. Therefore, Treponema pallidum is the causative agent of syphilis, making it the correct answer.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days