ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 23 y.o. woman is seen at an outpatient clinic for a routine Pap smear. When questioned, she states she is deciding whether to engage in sexual activity with a man she is just getting to know. She asks how she can tell if he has an STD. Which response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because it emphasizes the importance of medical examination and diagnostic testing to determine if the man has an STD. Step 2: Visual inspection (choice B) is not reliable as some STDs may not present with visible symptoms. Step 3: Relying solely on appearance and condom use (choices A and C) does not guarantee protection against all STDs. Step 4: Choice D is the best option as it advocates for seeking professional medical advice for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, "Fluid volume deficit R/T uncontrolled vomiting." This option correctly identifies the cause of the fluid volume deficit as uncontrolled vomiting, which is a common reason for fluid loss. The nursing diagnosis should always reflect the underlying cause of the issue. A is incorrect as "furrow tongue" is not a recognized medical term related to fluid volume deficit. C is incorrect because dehydration is not typically related to subnormal body temperature unless it is severe. D is incorrect as incessant vomiting is more specific to the cause, but the term "dehydration" should be used instead of "fluid volume deficit" in this context. In summary, option B is the appropriate nursing diagnosis as it accurately links the fluid volume deficit to the cause of uncontrolled vomiting.
Question 3 of 9
Considering Mr. Franco’s conditions, which of the following is most important to include in preparing Franco’s bedside equipment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Mr. Franco's condition suggests he may need support and positioning. Step 2: Sandbags provide stability and trochanter rolls prevent hip rotation. Step 3: These help prevent pressure ulcers and maintain proper body alignment. Step 4: Hand bell and bed linen are not essential for Mr. Franco's immediate care. Step 5: Footboard and splint may not be relevant to his specific condition. Step 6: Suction machine and gloves are important but not as crucial as positioning aids for Mr. Franco. Summary: Choice C is correct as it directly addresses Mr. Franco's needs for support and positioning, while the other choices are less relevant or not as essential in this context.
Question 4 of 9
What dietary advice should the nurse give to clients with HIV/AIDS?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decrease the intake of trace elements and antioxidant supplements. Clients with HIV/AIDS do not require additional trace elements and antioxidant supplements, as excessive intake can be harmful. HIV/AIDS already places stress on the immune system, so taking excessive supplements may lead to toxicity. It is important to focus on a balanced diet rich in essential nutrients rather than overloading the body with unnecessary supplements. Encouraging a healthy, balanced diet will help support overall health and immune function in clients with HIV/AIDS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because encouraging excessive intake of fat-soluble vitamins, water-soluble vitamins, iron, and zinc can also lead to potential adverse effects. It is important to focus on meeting the recommended daily allowances for these nutrients rather than exceeding them.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse evaluates a client’s response to a nursing intervention and determines that the expected outcome was not achieved. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reassess the client's condition. When an expected outcome is not achieved, the nurse must reassess the client's condition to identify the reasons for the lack of success. This step allows the nurse to gather more information, adjust the plan of care if necessary, and determine the most suitable course of action to help the client achieve the desired outcome. Choice A: Terminating the plan of care is premature without reassessing the client's condition and identifying potential barriers to success. Choice B: Modifying the plan of care may be necessary after reassessment but should not be the first step. Choice C: Reassigning care to another nurse does not address the underlying issues affecting the client's response to the intervention.
Question 6 of 9
An agitated, confused client arrives in the emergency department. The client’s history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. This amount of carbohydrate is recommended for treating hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes to quickly raise blood glucose levels without causing hyperglycemia. Consuming too little carbohydrate may not effectively raise blood glucose levels, while consuming too much may lead to a rapid spike followed by a rebound hypoglycemia. Options A and B provide insufficient amounts of carbohydrate, while option D provides excessive carbohydrate, increasing the risk of hyperglycemia. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for effectively treating hypoglycemia in this client.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse understands that labyrinthitis is treated primarily with which of the ff. drug categories?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antihistamines. Labyrinthitis is an inner ear condition often caused by inflammation or infection. Antihistamines help reduce symptoms like vertigo and dizziness by decreasing inflammation and fluid buildup in the inner ear. Anti-inflammatories (choice B) may help with inflammation but are not as effective for inner ear conditions. Antispasmotics (choice C) are not typically used for treating labyrinthitis. Antiemetics (choice D) are used to control nausea and vomiting, which can be symptoms of labyrinthitis but do not address the underlying cause.
Question 8 of 9
A male client, age 45, undergoes a lumbar puncture in which CSF was extracted for a particular neurologic diagnostic procedure. After the procedure, he complains of dizziness and a slight headache. Which of the ff steps must the nurse take to provide comfort to the client? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Position the client flat for at least 3 hrs or as directed by the physician. Rationale: 1. Positioning the client flat helps prevent post-lumbar puncture headache by allowing the CSF to replenish and stabilize the pressure in the spinal canal. 2. The recommended time frame of 3 hours allows for adequate CSF reabsorption and reduces the likelihood of headache. 3. Following physician's direction is crucial to individualize care based on the specific situation. Summary of other choices: B: Encouraging fluid intake is generally good practice but may not directly alleviate post-lumbar puncture headache. C: Keeping the room well lit and playing soothing music may not address the physiological cause of the client's symptoms. D: Ambulation and leg exercises are not recommended immediately post-lumbar puncture as they may exacerbate dizziness and headache.
Question 9 of 9
Mrs. Adams is scheduled for an intravemous pyelogram (IVP). Nurse Aura wpould be most concerned if the patient makes which of the following comments or statements?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking a laxative like Senokot can affect the results of an IVP by altering bowel motility and potentially causing inaccurate imaging. Choice B is related to bladder sensation, which is not directly relevant to an IVP. Choice C indicates a possible allergic reaction to mussels, which is unrelated to the procedure. Choice D mentions headaches, which are also not directly linked to an IVP. In summary, only choice A directly impacts the accuracy of the IVP results, making it the most concerning statement for Nurse Aura.