A 22-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and infertility. On pelvic examination, the uterus is retroverted and enlarged. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 22-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and infertility. On pelvic examination, the uterus is retroverted and enlarged. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Adenomyosis is a condition characterized by the presence of endometrial tissue within the myometrium (muscle wall) of the uterus. It can present with symptoms such as cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (painful periods), and infertility. On pelvic examination, the uterus may be retroverted (tilted backward) and enlarged due to the presence of adenomyotic nodules within the uterine muscle. Adenomyosis can also cause heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia). Endometriosis, on the other hand, involves the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus and can cause similar symptoms but is less likely to result in uterine enlargement or retroversion. Leiomyomas (uterine fibroids) are benign tumors of the uterine muscle and can also cause pelvic pain and abnormal uterine enlargement but are less likely to be associated with dysmenorrhea and infertility

Question 2 of 9

A pregnant woman presents with severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. On examination, she has a tender, distended abdomen. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Uterine rupture is a serious obstetric emergency that involves a tear or rupture of the uterine wall during pregnancy. In this scenario, the pregnant woman with severe lower abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and a tender, distended abdomen is showing signs consistent with uterine rupture. These symptoms are typically not seen with other conditions listed.

Question 3 of 9

When determining the existence of malpractice, which factor is NOT considered?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When determining the existence of malpractice, intent is not considered as a factor. Malpractice typically involves unintentional actions or negligence rather than a deliberate intent to cause harm. The key factors that are usually considered in a malpractice case include duty (a legal obligation to provide a certain standard of care), causation (the link between the provider's actions and the patient's injury), and the existence of an injury resulting from the provider's actions or omissions. Intent does not play a direct role in malpractice cases, as they are focused on the standard of care provided by the healthcare professional and the harm caused as a result.

Question 4 of 9

Clients who are taught a variety of skills such as measuring blood glucose, taking blood pressure, changing dressings, and bathing infants belong to which domain of learning?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Clients who are taught skills such as measuring blood glucose, taking blood pressure, changing dressings, and bathing infants are learning skills that involve physical movement and coordination. These activities require the integration of mental and physical skills, and they fall under the psychomotor domain of learning. In this domain, individuals develop physical skills and coordination through practice and repetition. The psychomotor domain is one of the three domains of learning, along with the cognitive domain (which involves knowledge and intellectual skills) and the affective domain (which involves emotions, values, and attitudes).

Question 5 of 9

Whose responsibility is it to obtain informed consent?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining informed consent is primarily the responsibility of the physician. Informed consent is a crucial ethical and legal concept in healthcare that requires the healthcare provider, usually the physician, to ensure that the patient understands the proposed treatment, including the risks, benefits, alternatives, and potential outcomes, before agreeing to proceed with the treatment. While other healthcare professionals, such as nurses, nurse managers, anesthesiologists, and midwives, may also play a role in the informed consent process by providing information and clarifying details, it is ultimately the physician who must obtain the patient's informed consent before any treatment or procedure is performed.

Question 6 of 9

A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a berry-shaped aneurysm at the junction of the anterior communicating artery and anterior cerebral artery. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presentation of sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status, along with the presence of a berry-shaped aneurysm on imaging, point towards a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage. The most common cause of a subarachnoid hemorrhage is the rupture of a saccular (berry) aneurysm, which commonly occurs at the junction of the anterior communicating artery and anterior cerebral artery. The sudden headache is often described as the "worst headache of my life" and is typically associated with nausea and vomiting. Altered mental status may be present due to the effects of increased intracranial pressure and possible associated brain injury. It is important to promptly diagnose and manage subarachnoid hemorrhage to prevent complications such as vasospasm, rebleeding, and ischemic deficits.

Question 7 of 9

Which communication technique should Nurse Cris employ in order to successfully capture the details of the meeting?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Nurse Cris should employ the communication technique of summarizing to successfully capture the details of the meeting. Summarizing involves condensing the information provided into a concise and organized form, which would help Nurse Cris remember and retain the key points discussed during the meeting. By summarizing the details, Nurse Cris can ensure that no important information is missed and can also confirm understanding by reflecting back the main points discussed. This technique promotes effective communication by enhancing clarity and reinforcing comprehension.

Question 8 of 9

The first standard-step-in oxygen therapy that the nurse should do is which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Before initiating any oxygen therapy, it is crucial for the nurse to first assess the patient's condition. This step allows the nurse to determine the patient's oxygen saturation levels, respiratory rate, lung sounds, and overall respiratory status. Understanding the patient's baseline condition helps in selecting the appropriate oxygen delivery method and flow rate that will best meet the patient's needs. Additionally, assessing the patient's condition allows the nurse to monitor the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy and make any necessary adjustments throughout the treatment process. Therefore, assessing the patient's condition is the necessary first step in providing safe and effective oxygen therapy.

Question 9 of 9

The client asks the nurse about using decongestant nasal sprays. Which of the following statements by the nurse is CORRECT regarding its use?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement regarding the use of decongestant nasal sprays is that "Nasal sprays should not be used for more than three days because it can worsen congestion." Prolonged use of decongestant nasal sprays can lead to rebound congestion, where the congestion worsens with extended use. Therefore, it is important to limit the use of these sprays to avoid this side effect. It is recommended to use decongestant nasal sprays for no longer than three consecutive days.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days