ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Practice B Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 22-year-old woman is interested in taking oral contraceptives for the prevention of pregnancy. The most likely benefit in terms of disease prevention from oral contraceptives is which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
A child is experiencing absence seizures that interrupt his ability to pay attention during school and activities. Which of the following therapies would be most appropriate for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ethosuximide treats absence seizures by blocking T-type calcium channels in thalamic neurons, reducing 3 Hz spike-and-wave discharges that disrupt attention, ideal for school-aged children. Carbamazepine, a sodium channel blocker, controls focal and tonic-clonic seizures but worsens absence seizures. Diazepam manages acute seizures, not chronic absence. Carbamazepine plus primidone targets other seizure types, not absence. Watchful waiting risks educational impact. Ethosuximide's specificity, efficacy, and pediatric safety make it the most appropriate, per guidelines.
Question 3 of 5
Oral decongestants differ from intranasal decongestants in that oral decongestants
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral decongestants (e.g., pseudoephedrine) act systemically, vasoconstricting vessels beyond the nose, causing effects like hypertension , unlike intranasal decongestants (e.g., oxymetazoline), which are localized but risk rebound congestion. Oral efficacy isn't inherently superior; it's slower. Rebound is nasal-specific. High efficacy is vague. Choice B highlights systemic impact, a key distinction nurses must recognize for safe administration.
Question 4 of 5
The physician prescribes fluticasone (Flonase) for the client. The nurse would hold the drug and contact the physician with which assessment finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse administers IV ceftriaxone (Rocephin) to a client with pneumonia. Which precaution should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ceftriaxone, a cephalosporin, treats pneumonia but risks hypersensitivity (e.g., rash, anaphylaxis). Monitoring for allergic reactions ensures safety, a key precaution. Dilution is standard but not the focus'protocol varies. Rapid infusion is too fast'30 minutes is typical. Undiluted risks irritation. Allergy monitoring aligns with cephalosporin's profile, critical in pneumonia where rapid intervention saves lives, making C the priority precaution.