A 22-year-old unemployed roofer presents to your clinic, complaining of pain in his testicle and penis. He states the pain began last night and has steadily become worse. He states it hurts when he urinates and he has not attempted intercourse since the pain began. He has tried Tylenol and ibuprofen without improvement. He denies any fever or night sweats. His past medical history is unremarkable. He has had four previous sexual partners and has had a new partner for the last month. She is on oral contraceptives so he has not used condoms. His parents are both in good health. On examination you see a young man lying on his side. He appears mildly ill. His temperature is 2 and his blood pressure, respirations, and pulse are normal. On visualization of the penis he is circumcised, with no lesions or discharge from the meatus. Visualization of the scrotal skin appears unremarkable. Palpation of the testes shows severe tenderness at the superior pole of the normal-sized left testicle. He also has tenderness when you palpate the structures superior to the testicle through the scrotal wall. The right testicle is unremarkable. An examining finger is placed through each inguinal ring without bulges being noted with bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. Urine analysis shows white blood cells and bacteria. What diagnosis of the male genitalia is most likely in this case?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The history and physical examination findings in this case are most consistent with acute epididymitis. Acute epididymitis is characterized by inflammation and infection of the epididymis, which is a tubular structure located behind the testicle that stores and carries sperm. Common symptoms of acute epididymitis include pain and swelling in the scrotum, testicular pain, pain with urination, and sometimes penile discharge. The patient's symptoms of testicular and penile pain, as well as pain with urination, are classic for epididymitis. The severe tenderness at the superior pole of the left testicle and tenderness on palpation of structures superior to the testicle through the scrotal wall further support this diagnosis. In addition, the presence of white blood cells and bacteria on urine analysis is consistent with an infectious process like epididymitis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Option D, "Psychosocial reasons may cause this condition," is true. Vaginismus is a condition characterized by involuntary contractions of the muscles around the vaginal entrance, which can make sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible. In many cases, this condition is linked with psychological factors such as anxiety, fear, past trauma, or relationship issues. These psychological factors can lead to the muscles tightening up in anticipation of pain or discomfort during intercourse, hence causing vaginismus. With appropriate psychological interventions like counseling, therapy, or relaxation techniques, individuals experiencing vaginismus can often overcome the condition and engage in pain-free intercourse.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The findings described in the scenario point towards rectal prolapse. Rectal prolapse, also known as procidentia or rectal procidentia, is the full-thickness protrusion of the rectal wall through the anus. The characteristic presentation often includes the protrusion of a rosette of red mucosa from the anus when the patient bears down. This is consistent with the visual assessment mentioned in the scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Lupus is a systemic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues throughout the body, including the joints. Joint pain in lupus is usually accompanied by other systemic symptoms such as fatigue, fever, skin rashes, and organ involvement. It is important to consider lupus as a potential cause of joint pain in a patient with diffuse joint symptoms to ensure proper management and treatment. Gout, osteoarthritis, and spondylosis are more localized conditions that primarily affect the joints without the systemic involvement typically seen in lupus.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this patient with bilateral back pain that awakens him at night, the most reassuring finding is that the pain is bilateral. Bilateral symptoms are less likely to be associated with red flags such as malignancy or infection compared to unilateral symptoms. While back pain in individuals over the age of 50, pain at night, and pain lasting more than 1 month are concerning features, the fact that the pain in this patient is bilateral provides some reassurance. However, further evaluation is still warranted to determine the exact cause of the pain and appropriate management.