ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 14 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 22-year-old patient is a clerk. His working day runs in a conditioned room. In summer he was taken by an acute disease with the following symptoms: fever, dyspnea, dry cough, pleural pain, myalgia, arthralgia. Objectively: moist rales on the right, pleural friction rub. X-ray picture showed infiltration of the inferior lobe. In blood: WBC - 11 · 109/l, stab neutrophils - 6%, segmented neutrophils - 70%, lymphocytes - 8%, ESR - 42 mm/h. What is the etiological factor pneumonia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common etiological factor for community-acquired pneumonia in young adults. The symptoms described align with typical pneumococcal pneumonia presentation. Presence of pleural friction rub and infiltration in the X-ray support the diagnosis. The blood work showing elevated WBC count with a left shift (increased neutrophils and low lymphocytes) and elevated ESR is consistent with a bacterial infection. Legionella and Mycoplasma typically present with atypical pneumonia symptoms such as headache, confusion, and GI symptoms, which are not described in the case. Staphylococcus pneumonia is not a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in young adults.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following methods is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct flaming. Direct flaming is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal because it involves passing the metal through a flame to kill microorganisms. The high temperature of the flame effectively destroys any bacteria or spores present on the metal surface. Incineration (A) is not practical for sterilizing metal as it involves burning at extremely high temperatures. Autoclaving (B) uses steam under pressure to sterilize, which is effective but more complex than direct flaming. Indirect heating (D) is not an effective method for sterilizing metal as it does not directly expose the metal to high temperatures required for sterilization.
Question 3 of 9
The binominal system of nomenclature was originally developed by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Linnaeus. Linnaeus developed the binomial system of nomenclature in the 18th century. This system uses a two-part naming system consisting of the genus and species name to classify and identify organisms. Linnaeus's contribution revolutionized the way organisms are named and classified in the field of biology. Other choices are incorrect as Pasteur is known for his work in microbiology, Martini is not associated with the development of binomial nomenclature, and Jenner is known for developing the smallpox vaccine.
Question 4 of 9
A wound culture from a patient with an infected ulcer revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative characteristics indicate Staphylococcus species. Specifically, Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal and a frequent cause of wound infections. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive, making it less likely in this scenario. Streptococcus pyogenes and Enterococcus faecalis are both Gram-positive cocci but are catalase-negative, making them less likely causative agents.
Question 5 of 9
The development of polioviruses on cell cultures is characterized by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cytopathic effect. This is because polioviruses cause visible changes in infected cells, leading to cell damage and death, known as cytopathic effect. This is a key characteristic of viral infection. Choice B (Cytotoxic effect) is incorrect as it refers to the toxicity of a substance to cells, not the specific effect of polioviruses. Choice C (Cytolytic effect) is incorrect as it specifically refers to cell lysis, which is not the primary mechanism of poliovirus infection. Choice D (They Don't Change The Cell Cultures) is incorrect because polioviruses do indeed cause changes in cell cultures due to their cytopathic effect.
Question 6 of 9
Which bacteria are known for their ability to fix nitrogen?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Azotobacter species. Azotobacter are known for their ability to fix nitrogen through the process of nitrogen fixation, converting atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can use. Bacillus cereus is not known for nitrogen fixation. Clostridium botulinum is a bacterium that causes botulism and does not fix nitrogen. Escherichia coli is a common gut bacterium but does not have the ability to fix nitrogen. Thus, Azotobacter species is the correct choice based on its unique ability to fix nitrogen.
Question 7 of 9
Which statement related to the mumps vaccine is true:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: it is a live attenuated vaccine. This is true because the mumps vaccine is indeed a live attenuated vaccine, meaning it contains a weakened form of the virus to stimulate an immune response without causing the disease. This type of vaccine provides long-lasting immunity. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: the vaccine is recommended, not obligatory - this is incorrect because the mumps vaccine is typically recommended for all individuals to prevent the spread of the disease. B: the vaccine is not given in combination with other vaccines - this is incorrect as the mumps vaccine is often given in combination with measles and rubella vaccines as the MMR vaccine. C: the vaccine is administered orally - this is incorrect because the mumps vaccine is usually administered via injection, not orally.
Question 8 of 9
On examination of a patient with disease onset 5 days ago the doctor suspected tularemia and prescribed the patient tularin intracutaneously. What is the purpose of this drug administration in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Treatment. Tularin is a specific immunizing agent used for the treatment of tularemia. The purpose of tularin administration in this patient is to provide a targeted treatment against the suspected tularemia infection. It helps the patient's immune system to recognize and fight against the bacteria causing the disease. Explanation for other choices: A: Allergy diagnostics - Tularin is not used for allergy diagnostics, as it is specifically indicated for tularemia treatment. B: Prognosis for the disease - Tularin is not used to predict the outcome of the disease but rather to treat the infection. D: Treatment evaluation - Tularin is not used for evaluating the effectiveness of treatment but for actively treating the tularemia infection.
Question 9 of 9
Nigrosin is a stain used in:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nigrosin is used in negative staining, where the background is stained instead of the cells themselves. This technique helps highlight the morphology and structure of cells that may be damaged by traditional staining methods. Nigrosin is negatively charged and repels the negatively charged bacterial cells, resulting in a clear halo around the cells. This process is particularly useful for observing capsules and determining cell size and shape. The other options are incorrect because simple staining uses a single dye to color the entire cell, gram staining involves a series of dyes to differentiate between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, and acid-fast staining is used to detect acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium.