A 22-year-old patient is a clerk. His working day runs in a conditioned room. In summer he was taken by an acute disease with the following symptoms: fever, dyspnea, dry cough, pleural pain, myalgia, arthralgia. Objectively: moist rales on the right, pleural friction rub. X-ray picture showed infiltration of the inferior lobe. In blood: WBC - 11 · 109/l, stab neutrophils - 6%, segmented neutrophils - 70%, lymphocytes - 8%, ESR - 42 mm/h. What is the etiological factor pneumonia?

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Microbiology Chapter 14 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 22-year-old patient is a clerk. His working day runs in a conditioned room. In summer he was taken by an acute disease with the following symptoms: fever, dyspnea, dry cough, pleural pain, myalgia, arthralgia. Objectively: moist rales on the right, pleural friction rub. X-ray picture showed infiltration of the inferior lobe. In blood: WBC - 11 · 109/l, stab neutrophils - 6%, segmented neutrophils - 70%, lymphocytes - 8%, ESR - 42 mm/h. What is the etiological factor pneumonia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common etiological factor for community-acquired pneumonia in young adults. The symptoms described align with typical pneumococcal pneumonia presentation. Presence of pleural friction rub and infiltration in the X-ray support the diagnosis. The blood work showing elevated WBC count with a left shift (increased neutrophils and low lymphocytes) and elevated ESR is consistent with a bacterial infection. Legionella and Mycoplasma typically present with atypical pneumonia symptoms such as headache, confusion, and GI symptoms, which are not described in the case. Staphylococcus pneumonia is not a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in young adults.

Question 2 of 9

A child suspected for tuberculosis underwent Mantoux test. 24 hours after allergen injection there appeared a swelling, hyperaemia and tenderness. What are the main components in the development of this reaction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mononuclears, T-lymphocytes and lymphokines. In a Mantoux test reaction, mononuclear cells, mainly T-lymphocytes, are activated by the injected allergen. These T-lymphocytes release lymphokines, leading to the observed swelling, hyperaemia, and tenderness. Granulocytes and IgG (choice B) are not the primary players in this type of delayed hypersensitivity reaction. Plasmatic cells (choice C) are not involved in the initial stages of this reaction. B-lymphocytes and IgM (choice D) are not the key components in the Mantoux test reaction.

Question 3 of 9

Which enzyme is one of the most important and constant criteria for pathogenicity of staphylococcus aureus?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: plasma coagulase. This enzyme is essential for the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus as it can convert fibrinogen to fibrin, forming a protective barrier around the bacteria. This helps the bacteria evade the host's immune system. Beta lactamase (A) is not directly related to pathogenicity but rather resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics. Catalase (C) is produced by many bacteria, including Staphylococcus aureus, but it is not a specific indicator of pathogenicity. Choice D is incorrect as plasma coagulase is indeed an important criterion for the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 4 of 9

A patient with a sore throat had a throat smear revealing Gram-positive cocci in pairs. The bacteria were catalase-negative and beta-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in pairs suggest Streptococcus species. 2. Catalase-negative rules out Staphylococcus. 3. Beta-hemolytic indicates Streptococcus pyogenes due to its beta-hemolytic properties. Summary: B: Streptococcus pneumoniae is catalase-negative but not beta-hemolytic. C: Enterococcus faecalis is not typically beta-hemolytic. D: Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and not typically in pairs.

Question 5 of 9

A 22-year-old patient is a clerk. His working day runs in a conditioned room. In summer he was taken by an acute disease with the following symptoms: fever, dyspnea, dry cough, pleural pain, myalgia, arthralgia. Objectively: moist rales on the right, pleural friction rub. X-ray picture showed infiltration of the inferior lobe. In blood: WBC - 11 · 109/l, stab neutrophils - 6%, segmented neutrophils - 70%, lymphocytes - 8%, ESR - 42 mm/h. What is the etiological factor pneumonia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common etiological factor for community-acquired pneumonia in young adults. The symptoms described align with typical pneumococcal pneumonia presentation. Presence of pleural friction rub and infiltration in the X-ray support the diagnosis. The blood work showing elevated WBC count with a left shift (increased neutrophils and low lymphocytes) and elevated ESR is consistent with a bacterial infection. Legionella and Mycoplasma typically present with atypical pneumonia symptoms such as headache, confusion, and GI symptoms, which are not described in the case. Staphylococcus pneumonia is not a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in young adults.

Question 6 of 9

Some of the viruses have a cubic type of symmetry, which in the shape of

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: icosahedral structure. Icosahedral symmetry is common in viruses due to its efficient packing of genetic material. It consists of 20 equilateral triangular faces and 12 vertices. This symmetry allows viruses to have a stable structure and optimal capacity for encapsulating their genetic material. A: Tetrahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 4 faces and is not commonly found in viruses. B: Hexahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 6 faces and is not a common symmetry type in viruses. C: Dodecahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 12 faces and is not typically seen in viruses. In summary, the icosahedral structure is the correct choice due to its stability, efficient packing, and common presence in viral structures compared to the other options.

Question 7 of 9

Which scientist is most responsible for ending the controversy about spontaneous generation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Louis Pasteur. He conducted experiments that definitively disproved the theory of spontaneous generation through his famous swan-neck flask experiment. By showing that microorganisms only appeared in the broth when exposed to air, Pasteur demonstrated that they did not arise spontaneously. John Needham's experiments were inconclusive, Joseph Lister is known for his contributions to antiseptic surgery, and Robert Koch is credited with developing Koch's postulates for identifying the causative agents of diseases, but neither of them directly contributed to ending the controversy about spontaneous generation.

Question 8 of 9

The binominal system of nomenclature was originally developed by

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Linnaeus. Linnaeus developed the binomial system of nomenclature in the 18th century. This system uses a two-part naming system consisting of the genus and species name to classify and identify organisms. Linnaeus's contribution revolutionized the way organisms are named and classified in the field of biology. Other choices are incorrect as Pasteur is known for his work in microbiology, Martini is not associated with the development of binomial nomenclature, and Jenner is known for developing the smallpox vaccine.

Question 9 of 9

The development of polioviruses on cell cultures is characterized by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cytopathic effect. This is because polioviruses cause visible changes in infected cells, leading to cell damage and death, known as cytopathic effect. This is a key characteristic of viral infection. Choice B (Cytotoxic effect) is incorrect as it refers to the toxicity of a substance to cells, not the specific effect of polioviruses. Choice C (Cytolytic effect) is incorrect as it specifically refers to cell lysis, which is not the primary mechanism of poliovirus infection. Choice D (They Don't Change The Cell Cultures) is incorrect because polioviruses do indeed cause changes in cell cultures due to their cytopathic effect.

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