A 22-year-old man is brought to the hospital after crashing his motorcycle into a telephone pole. He is unconscious and in profound shock. He has no open wounds or obvious fractures. The cause of his shock is MOST LIKELY caused by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hemorrhage into the chest or abdomen. In this scenario, the man has no open wounds or obvious fractures, ruling out subdural and epidural hematomas. A transected spinal cord would result in neurological deficits rather than shock. Hemorrhage into the chest or abdomen can lead to significant blood loss causing shock, especially in trauma patients. This is supported by the mechanism of injury (motorcycle crash) and the absence of external bleeding.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Be treated for hypovolemic shock. The patient's low blood pressure (60/40) and rapid pulse (140 bpm) indicate hypovolemic shock due to significant blood loss from the crash. Treating hypovolemic shock involves administering fluids to restore blood volume and improve perfusion to vital organs. This is crucial to stabilize the patient's condition before further interventions. Choice A (Undergo exploratory celiotomy) is incorrect as it is not the immediate priority in this case. Choice B (Be treated for neurogenic shock) is incorrect because the patient's symptoms are more indicative of hypovolemic shock. Choice D (Undergo immediate nasotracheal intubation) is also incorrect as the priority should be addressing the hypovolemic shock first to stabilize the patient's condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Multiple organ failure. Inadequate organ perfusion leads to decreased oxygen and nutrient delivery to various organs, causing cellular dysfunction and potential organ failure. This can result in a cascade of events affecting multiple organs, ultimately leading to systemic complications. Vasodilatation (A) is a response to inadequate perfusion, not a consequence. Decreased base deficit (C) is a laboratory parameter indicating metabolic acidosis, not a consequence of inadequate perfusion. Acute glomerulonephritis (D) is a specific kidney condition unrelated to inadequate organ perfusion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Skilled nursing facilities. Long-term care involves ongoing assistance with daily activities for individuals who are unable to care for themselves. Skilled nursing facilities provide 24-hour nursing care, rehabilitation services, and assistance with activities of daily living. Hospitals (A) focus on acute care rather than long-term care. Adult day services facilities (B) offer daytime care and activities but not 24-hour care. Ambulatory surgical centers (D) provide outpatient surgical procedures, not long-term care. Skilled nursing facilities best meet the comprehensive care needs for long-term care residents.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a policy is a predetermined course of action that guides decision-making and behavior in specific situations. It is not an action that must be taken every time a situation occurs, a specific method of doing something, or the chain of command within a facility. Policies are guidelines for consistent and effective decision-making, not just routine actions or specific methods.