A 22-year-old man is brought to the hospital after crashing his motorcycle into a telephone pole. He is unconscious and in profound shock. He has no open wounds or obvious fractures. The cause of his shock is MOST LIKELY caused by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hemorrhage into the chest or abdomen. In this scenario, the man's profound shock without open wounds or fractures suggests internal bleeding, likely from hemorrhage into the chest or abdomen. This type of bleeding can lead to rapid blood loss and shock. Subdural and epidural hematomas involve bleeding in the brain, not the cause of shock in this case. A transected lumbar spinal cord may cause neurological deficits but is less likely to lead to profound shock without external injuries. Hemorrhage into the chest or abdomen is the most likely cause of shock in a trauma patient without external signs of bleeding.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Be treated for hypovolemic shock. Rationale: 1. The patient's low blood pressure (60/40) and high pulse rate (140 bpm) indicate hypovolemic shock due to significant blood loss from the crash. 2. Treatment for hypovolemic shock involves restoring intravascular volume with intravenous fluids to improve perfusion and stabilize the patient's condition. 3. Initiating treatment for hypovolemic shock is crucial to prevent further complications and improve the patient's chances of survival. Summary: - Choice A (Undergo exploratory celiotomy) is incorrect as it involves abdominal surgery and is not indicated based on the presented symptoms. - Choice B (Be treated for neurogenic shock) is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of hypovolemic shock. - Choice D (Undergo immediate nasotracheal intubation) is incorrect as airway management is not the primary concern in this scenario, addressing hypov

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Multiple organ failure. Inadequate organ perfusion leads to tissue hypoxia, causing cellular dysfunction and ultimately multiple organ failure. Vasodilatation (A) is a compensatory mechanism to increase blood flow, not a consequence of inadequate perfusion. Decreased base deficit (C) is not a direct consequence but rather an indicator of metabolic acidosis. Acute glomerulonephritis (D) is a specific kidney condition and not a general consequence of inadequate organ perfusion. Multiple organ failure is the most severe outcome of inadequate perfusion as it signifies the failure of various organs due to systemic hypoperfusion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Skilled nursing facilities. Long-term care, which involves ongoing assistance with activities of daily living, is typically provided in skilled nursing facilities due to their specialized care and 24-hour nursing staff. Hospitals (A) focus on acute care, adult day services facilities (B) offer daytime programs, and ambulatory surgical centers (D) provide outpatient surgical procedures, making them unsuitable for long-term care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a policy is a predetermined course of action that guides decision-making in specific situations. It is not always applicable every time a situation occurs, but provides a framework for consistent and appropriate actions. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to a procedure, not a policy. Choice C is incorrect because it defines organizational structure, not policy. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to a regulatory assessment, not a policy.