ATI RN
Pharmacology Practice Exam A ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 22-year-old man has taken an overdose of sleeping pills after learning that he did not receive the job he has recently been interviewed for. He is found by his roommate conscious but not able to completely follow commands. The roommate calls the local poison control center. Instructions are given to self-administer syrup of ipecac while waiting for the rescue squad to respond. This agent has a mechanism of action that involves which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Syrup of ipecac induces vomiting in overdose. It stimulates the chemotactic trigger zone in the medulla-prompting emesis. Gag reflex stimulation is secondary. Suppressing pressures , gag reflex , or motor cortex (E) don't apply. Though less used now, ipecac's CNS action expels pills, aiding this acute scenario, distinct from mechanical or suppressive effects.
Question 2 of 5
A 75-year-old woman had a stroke approximately 1 month ago. She is continuing to have small focal seizures where she fails to respond appropriately while talking. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this individual?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Levetiracetam treats post-stroke focal seizures by modulating SV2A, offering efficacy, minimal hepatic metabolism, and low interaction risk, ideal for an elderly patient with likely polypharmacy. Phenytoin, a sodium channel blocker, controls seizures but has nonlinear kinetics and P450 induction, risking toxicity. Oxcarbazepine, similar to carbamazepine, has hyponatremia risks, concerning in the elderly. Phenobarbital sedates and interacts via P450. Levetiracetam's safety, renal clearance, and effectiveness in stroke-related epilepsy, per guidelines, make it the most appropriate here.
Question 3 of 5
A patient who reports severe seasonal allergies has been prescribed fluticasone (Flonase). The nurse providing medication information would collaborate with the prescriber if the patient makes which statement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluticasone, a corticosteroid, is contraindicated with active infections (e.g., viral colds) due to immunosuppression risks . 'My kids have a head cold' suggests exposure, prompting nurse-prescriber collaboration to assess infection status. Licorice , psoriasis , and fruit don't contraindicate use. Choice B prioritizes safety, avoiding exacerbation of undetected infection.
Question 4 of 5
The client has been prescribed the opioid combination drug Novahistine DM for control of cough. This drug contains codeine, phenylephrine, and chlorpheniramine. Which instructions should the nurse provide as part of medication education?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Novahistine DM's codeine and chlorpheniramine cause sedation , requiring safety instructions (correct answers: 3, 4, 5). Water and bedside are less critical. D prevents harm, making it key.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client receiving IV heparin. Which finding requires immediate action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin anticoagulates, monitored by aPTT (therapeutic: 60-80 seconds). An aPTT of 90 seconds indicates over-anticoagulation, risking bleeding, needing immediate action (e.g., stop infusion). Bruising and redness are minor. Platelets of 150,000 are normal. Prolonged aPTT aligns with heparin's effect, critical in therapy where bleeding is a threat, making B the finding requiring swift response.