A 22-year-old male is being discharged home after surgery for testicular cancer. The patient is scheduled to begin chemotherapy in 2 weeks. The patient tells the nurse that he doesnt think he can take weeks or months of chemotherapy, stating that he has researched the adverse effects online. What is the most appropriate nursing action for this patient at this time?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Provide empathy and encouragement in an effort to foster a positive outlook. Rationale: 1. Empathy and encouragement are essential in establishing rapport and trust with the patient. 2. By fostering a positive outlook, the nurse can help alleviate the patient's anxiety and fears. 3. Encouraging a positive mindset can improve the patient's adherence to treatment. 4. It is important to address the patient's concerns and provide support rather than dismissing them. Summary: B: Telling the patient it is his decision may not address his emotional needs and could lead to further distress. C: Reporting the patient's statement to his support system may breach confidentiality and undermine trust. D: Referring the patient to social work may be premature without first addressing the patient's emotional concerns directly.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vulvodynia. Vulvodynia is characterized by chronic vulvar pain or discomfort, including stabbing pain and burning, without an identifiable cause. In this case, the young girl is experiencing these symptoms despite not being sexually active, ruling out other conditions like vulvitis (inflammation of the vulva), vaginitis (inflammation of the vagina), and Bartholin's cyst (fluid-filled swelling near the vaginal opening). The absence of sexual activity suggests that the pain is not related to an infection or trauma, further supporting the diagnosis of vulvodynia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (900 mL) because the weight of 900 g corresponds to a blood loss of the same amount in milliliters. Blood density is close to that of water, so 1 g ≈ 1 mL. Therefore, a blood-soaked peripad weighing 900 g indicates a blood loss of 900 mL. Choice A (1800 mL) is incorrect as it doubles the weight instead of converting it to milliliters. Choice B (450 mL) is incorrect as it halves the weight. Choice D (90 mL) is incorrect as it divides the weight by 10, which is too small for the blood loss indicated.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because floaters are commonly caused by age-related changes in the vitreous humor of the eye, such as the formation of tiny fibers or clumps. These floaters are typically harmless and not a cause for concern. Choice B is incorrect because glasses do not affect floaters in the eye. Choice C is incorrect because floaters are not a primary symptom of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because weakened ciliary muscles are not typically associated with floaters. Therefore, the most appropriate interpretation is that seeing floaters is a normal aging process of the eye.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's symptoms of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain are classic signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating a significant increase in blood pressure and potential progression to eclampsia (seizures). Immediate medical intervention is crucial to prevent complications. A: Gastrointestinal upset does not explain the combination of symptoms presented. B: Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia but does not cause these specific symptoms. C: Anxiety does not typically present with the specific physical symptoms mentioned.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hold the condom by the cuff upon withdrawal. This is important because holding the condom by the cuff helps prevent any potential spillage of bodily fluids. During withdrawal, holding the condom by the base prevents it from slipping off and minimizes the risk of exposure to sexually transmitted infections. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Attaching the condom prior to erection is incorrect as it may lead to breakage or slipping off during intercourse. B: Reusing a condom with the same partner is highly discouraged due to the risk of breakage, reduced effectiveness, and potential exposure to infections. C: Using skin lotion as a lubricant is not recommended as it can degrade the condom material, increasing the risk of breakage.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensuring that the patient receives adequate palliative care. Palliative care focuses on improving the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses, including managing symptoms and providing emotional support. In this case, since the patient is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases, palliative care would be most appropriate to help alleviate any pain or discomfort she may be experiencing and provide holistic support for her and her family. A: Promoting the patient's functional status and ADLs may not be the priority if the patient's prognosis is terminal and she is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases. C: Ensuring that the family does not tell the patient her condition is terminal goes against ethical principles of honesty and transparency in healthcare. D: Promoting adherence to the prescribed medication regimen may not be relevant if the patient is not receiving active treatment for her brain metastases.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response. This is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient preparing for hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) because the patient's immune system will be severely compromised post-transplant, leading to a high risk of infections. It is crucial to prioritize infection prevention to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect because while fatigue is common in cancer patients, it is not the priority in this case where infection risk is higher. Choice B is incorrect as altered nutrition can be addressed after managing the risk for infection. Choice D is incorrect as body image disturbance is important but not as critical as preventing infections in this highly vulnerable patient population.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because hearing loss and tinnitus caused by aspirin are typically irreversible. Aspirin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can lead to permanent damage to the auditory system. The nurse should inform the patient that the hearing loss and tinnitus may not improve even after discontinuing aspirin. Choice A is incorrect because hearing loss caused by aspirin is usually permanent. Choice C is incorrect because aspirin is a known cause of tinnitus and hearing loss. Choice D is incorrect because tolerance to aspirin does not prevent or reverse ototoxic effects like tinnitus and hearing loss.