A 22-year-old female accounting student requires a daily cup of coffee upon arising and another cup as she finishes her first class of the day. She prefers to drink caffeinated products. Which of the following is the most plausible mechanism of action of this product?

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Question 1 of 5

A 22-year-old female accounting student requires a daily cup of coffee upon arising and another cup as she finishes her first class of the day. She prefers to drink caffeinated products. Which of the following is the most plausible mechanism of action of this product?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Caffeine's stimulant effect in coffee relies on adenosine receptor blockade . By inhibiting adenosine's sedative action, caffeine increases alertness, fitting her routine. Option , decreasing cAMP, contradicts caffeine's phosphodiesterase inhibition, which raises cAMP. Option , decreasing cGMP, is unrelated. Option , stimulating phosphodiesterase, opposes caffeine's action. Option (E), calcium transport, isn't primary. Adenosine antagonism drives caffeine's wakefulness, supporting her daily use to combat fatigue during study.

Question 2 of 5

A 25-year-old male comes to the emergency department with crushing, substernal chest pain. The pain radiates up to his jaw and down to his right arm. He has never had chest pain like this before. An ECG shows ST elevations in leads I, II, and AVF. A detailed history reveals that he had used cocaine 2 h prior to the onset of chest pain. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in the treatment of myocardial infarction caused by his cocaine use?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Cocaine-induced MI (ST elevations) contraindicates β-blockers . They exacerbate coronary vasospasm via unopposed α-stimulation. ACE inhibitors , aspirin , calcium channel blockers , and nitroglycerin (E) are safe. β-Blockers worsen this unique MI etiology.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following is the only medication that is approved for the management of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Riluzole is the only FDA-approved drug for ALS, extending survival by inhibiting glutamate release, reducing excitotoxicity that accelerates motor neuron death. It modestly slows progression, offering a disease-modifying effect. Pramipexole and selegiline, dopamine-related drugs, treat Parkinson's, not ALS. Galantamine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, targets Alzheimer's cognition. Glatiramer manages MS via immune modulation. Riluzole's glutamate antagonism addresses ALS's neurodegenerative mechanism, backed by clinical trials, making it uniquely approved for this fatal condition.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse manages care for several clients receiving hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What will the priority assessment by the nurse include as related to side effects?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: HRT, often involving estrogen, increases thrombophlebitis risk due to enhanced clotting factors. Calf pain signals possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a life-threatening side effect requiring immediate assessment, as it could lead to pulmonary embolism. Decreased libido , low-back pain , and fatigue may occur with HRT but are less urgent and not specific to its most dangerous complications. The nurse prioritizes calf pain due to its association with thromboembolism, a well-documented HRT risk, especially in smokers or those with vascular issues, making choice A the critical focus for safety.

Question 5 of 5

The patient has a potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. The nurse is administering glucose and insulin. The patient's wife says, 'He doesn't have diabetes, why is he getting insulin?' What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia (5.9 mEq/L), insulin shifts potassium into cells , lowering serum levels temporarily, paired with glucose to avoid hypoglycemia. Choice B misstates excretion. Choice C compares unnecessarily. Choice D attributes renal action incorrectly. A explains the mechanism accurately, making it the best response.

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