ATI RN
NCLEX questions on chemotherapy drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 22-year-old African American man who is a college student plans to travel to Africa for a semester of study abroad. A university student health physician prescribes chloroquine for malaria prophylaxis starting 2 weeks before the trip. Soon after starting the regimen, the patient develops scleral icterus. What is the most likely underlying cause for the icterus?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Scleral icterus (jaundice) in an African American patient on chloroquine suggests glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency, causing hemolysis and bilirubin elevation.
Question 2 of 5
A 58-year-old woman presents to the ambulatory care clinic with repetitive, uncontrollable lip smacking and puckering. Past medical history includes Type-2 diabetes for which she takes glipizide and metformin, hypercholesterolemia for which she takes lovastatin, bipolar disorder for which she takes haloperidol, and hypertension for which she takes hydrochlorothiazide. Which of her medications is likely causing her symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, is associated with tardive dyskinesia, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking, due to long-term dopamine receptor blockade.
Question 3 of 5
A 25-year-old G1P0 woman presents to the emergency department with shaking chills, chest pain, and productive cough. A chest X-ray reveals an area of opacity in the right lower lobe. The physician's choice of antibiotics is limited because some may harm this patient's fetus. Which of the following antibiotics may cause hearing loss in her fetus?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Streptomycin, an aminoglycoside, is ototoxic and can cause hearing loss in the fetus, making it contraindicated in pregnancy.
Question 4 of 5
A 26-year-old sexually active man presents to his primary care physician with a nonpruritic maculopapular rash on his palms. He reports that about 6 weeks ago, he developed a nonpainful ulcer on his penis that healed spontaneously. Benzathine penicillin G is administered. Twelve hours later, he begins to have myalgia, fever, and chills. What is the most likely cause of this new onset of symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This is a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction, caused by rapid release of endotoxins from dying Treponema pallidum (syphilis) after penicillin treatment, leading to fever, myalgia, and chills.
Question 5 of 5
A 23-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with dysuria and urgency. Urine is positive for leukocyte esterase and nitrites. Her physician prescribes co-trimoxazole for her UTI. How does co-trimoxazole inhibit bacterial growth?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Co-trimoxazole (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) inhibits bacterial folate synthesis, blocking nucleotide production; sulfamethoxazole inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase, and trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.