ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 20-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of severe lower abdominal pain and missed menstrual periods for the past two months. She has a positive urine pregnancy test. On transvaginal ultrasound, an empty uterus is visualized, and there is fluid in the cul-de-sac. Which condition is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ectopic pregnancy. In this scenario, the combination of missed periods, positive pregnancy test, and empty uterus on ultrasound with fluid in the cul-de-sac is highly suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. The presence of fluid in the cul-de-sac indicates possible blood from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, causing the severe lower abdominal pain. Ovarian cyst rupture (A) typically presents with less severe pain. Septic abortion (C) would present with signs of infection and products of conception in the uterus. Ovarian torsion (D) would present with acute onset of unilateral lower abdominal pain and a palpable adnexal mass, not fluid in the cul-de-sac.
Question 2 of 5
Outbreak of cases of typhoid fever occurs in the community. Nurse Keena should inform the residents that the transmission of the disease is through _______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Food and water. Typhoid fever is primarily transmitted through contaminated food and water by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. The bacteria are shed in the feces of infected individuals and can contaminate water sources or food prepared with contaminated water. This transmission route aligns with the typical epidemiology of typhoid fever outbreaks. Now, let's discuss why the other choices are incorrect: A: A vector - Typhoid fever is not transmitted by a vector such as mosquitoes or ticks. B: Blood and body fluids - Typhoid fever is not typically spread through blood or body fluids but rather through ingestion of contaminated food or water. D: Air - Typhoid fever is not an airborne disease and is not transmitted through the air.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with a history of chronic liver disease presents with ecchymoses, mucosal bleeding, and altered mental status. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged PT and aPTT, low fibrinogen levels, and elevated D-dimer. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). In DIC, there is widespread activation of coagulation leading to consumption of clotting factors, resulting in prolonged PT and aPTT, low fibrinogen levels, and elevated D-dimer. This pattern matches the laboratory findings in the patient. In liver cirrhosis (choice A), there is a decrease in clotting factors synthesis, leading to prolonged PT but not aPTT. Hemophilia A (choice C) is a genetic disorder that affects specific clotting factors, typically leading to prolonged aPTT but not PT. Vitamin K deficiency (choice D) impairs the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to prolonged PT but not aPTT and low levels of factors II, VII, IX, and X.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following situation is an example of incongruent message?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Incongruent message occurs when verbal and nonverbal communication do not align. Step 2: Choice C states "When what the nurse says and does do not agree," indicating a lack of alignment. Step 3: This inconsistency can lead to confusion or mistrust in communication. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D all describe situations with alignment between words and actions, making them congruent. Summary: Choice C is correct as it exemplifies incongruent communication, while Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they describe congruent messages.
Question 5 of 5
A patient presents with severe headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness. On examination, there is nuchal rigidity and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meningitis. The patient's symptoms of severe headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, nuchal rigidity, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs are classic signs of meningitis. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord, leading to these specific neurological symptoms. Migraine headache (A) typically presents with a throbbing headache, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Cluster headache (B) is characterized by severe unilateral headache with autonomic symptoms like tearing or nasal congestion, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (D) presents with sudden severe headache often described as "the worst headache of my life," and may cause neck stiffness, but typically does not present with photophobia or positive meningeal signs like Kernig and Brudzinski signs.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access