ATI RN
ATI Practice Exam Pharmacology The Endocrine System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic for follow-up related to isotretinoin use. Which information from the iPLEDGE program will the nurse provide to the patient? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The iPLEDGE program is a risk management program for isotretinoin to prevent fetal exposure. Patients must review iPLEDGE educational materials (B) and provide a negative pregnancy test before each monthly refill (C). Two methods of contraception are required, not one (A). Informed consent is required (D is incorrect). A 30-day, not 60-day, supply is prescribed (E is incorrect).
Question 2 of 5
A neighbor tells nurse Maureen he has to have surgery and is reluctant to have any blood product transfusions because of a fear of contracting an infection. He asks the nurse what are his options. The nurse teaches the person that the safest blood product is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An autologous blood product is the safest option because it involves the patient donating their own blood before surgery, eliminating the risk of transfusion reactions or infections from donor blood. Allogeneic products come from other donors and carry a small risk of infection or incompatibility. Directed donations are from known donors but still carry some risks. Cross-matching ensures compatibility but does not eliminate infection risks. Therefore, autologous donation is the safest choice.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is least likely to have an adverse drug interaction with phenelzine (a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenelzine, an MAOI, risks hypertensive crisis or serotonin syndrome with drugs increasing monoamines. Levodopa raises catecholamines, risking hypertension with MAOIs. Ropinirole, a dopamine agonist, may enhance monoamine effects, potentially hazardous. Tolcapone, a COMT inhibitor, increases levodopa levels, amplifying MAOI risks. Pseudoephedrine, a sympathomimetic, causes severe hypertension. Propofol, an anesthetic, acts via GABA without monoamine interaction, making it least likely to cause adverse effects with phenelzine. Its safety profile here is key for procedural use in MAOI patients.
Question 4 of 5
Warfarin:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Warfarin is highly bioavailable (near 100%), so 90% is close and true. It doesn't inactivate vitamin K but inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, reducing clotting factor synthesis, making that false. It can paradoxically cause venous thrombosis (e.g., skin necrosis) early in therapy due to protein C depletion, a true statement. Initial loading is typically 5-10 mg, not 0.5 mg, so that's false. Metronidazole increases its effect via metabolism inhibition, not bactericidal action. The thrombosis risk is a rare but serious side effect, highlighting the need for bridging with heparin during initiation.
Question 5 of 5
A client with benign prostatic hyperplasia is to receive finasteride (Proscar). The nurse understands that this drug works by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Finasteride (Proscar), a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, reduces prostate size in benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by blocking dihydrotestosterone (DHT) production, shrinking glandular tissue and easing urinary obstruction. Relaxing penile smooth muscle is the role of phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors like sildenafil, not finasteride. It lowers DHT, not testosterone, and may even slightly increase circulating testosterone, but that's not its aim. Stimulating RNA synthesis relates to androgens' anabolic effects, not finasteride's mechanism. Shrinking the prostate is its core function, taking months to reduce symptoms, distinct from acute smooth muscle relaxation or hormonal boosts, aligning with BPH management goals.