ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Practice B 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic for follow-up related to isotretinoin use. Which information from the iPLEDGE program will the nurse provide to the patient? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The iPLEDGE program is a risk management program for isotretinoin to prevent fetal exposure. Patients must review iPLEDGE educational materials (B) and provide a negative pregnancy test before each monthly refill (C). Two methods of contraception are required, not one (A). Informed consent is required (D is incorrect). A 30-day, not 60-day, supply is prescribed (E is incorrect).
Question 2 of 5
The following drugs undergo significant enterohepatic circulation:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oestrogens undergo enterohepatic circulation as they are conjugated in the liver, excreted in bile, and reabsorbed in the intestine, prolonging their action.
Question 3 of 5
Two days after admission, the nurse is reviewing laboratory results of the patient. Which is the most common electrolyte finding resulting from the administration of furosemide (Lasix)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic commonly used to treat conditions such as edema and hypertension by increasing urine output. One of the most common electrolyte imbalances associated with the use of furosemide is hypokalemia, which is a low level of potassium in the blood. This occurs because furosemide increases the excretion of potassium in the urine by inhibiting its reabsorption in the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to various symptoms such as muscle weakness, cramps, and cardiac arrhythmias, making it important for healthcare providers to monitor potassium levels closely in patients receiving furosemide.
Question 4 of 5
Warfarin:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Warfarin is highly bioavailable (near 100%), so 90% is close and true. It doesn't inactivate vitamin K but inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, reducing clotting factor synthesis, making that false. It can paradoxically cause venous thrombosis (e.g., skin necrosis) early in therapy due to protein C depletion, a true statement. Initial loading is typically 5-10 mg, not 0.5 mg, so that's false. Metronidazole increases its effect via metabolism inhibition, not bactericidal action. The thrombosis risk is a rare but serious side effect, highlighting the need for bridging with heparin during initiation.
Question 5 of 5
The patient tells the nurse that she is interested in the human brain and questions which parts of the brain control anxiety and insomnia. What is the best reply by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The limbic system (e.g., amygdala) drives anxiety-emotional response-while the reticular activating system (RAS) regulates sleep-wake, impacting insomnia, per neuroanatomy. Frontal lobes plan, not directly control these. Thalamus relays, not initiates. Hypothalamus affects sleep but less anxiety. Limbic-RAS pairing fits, answering precisely.