ATI RN
Hematology Final Exam Questions Pdf Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 20-year-old white woman has been admitted to the hospital with pulmonary embolism. She has no chronic illnesses and is receiving no medications except for combination estrogen-progesterone birth control pills that she started using approximately 1 year earlier. Results were normal for a complete blood cell count, baseline prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and tests of kidney and liver function. The patient is currently receiving therapeutic doses of intravenous unfractionated heparin, and her aPTT is therapeutic at 72 seconds. A panel of thrombophilia tests has been performed. Which of the following statements about her thrombophilia test results is correct?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: DNA-based testing for factor V Leiden and prothrombin G20210A is reliable despite heparin or thrombosis, unlike antithrombin (B) or protein S (D), which can be falsely low acutely and need repeat testing. A single LAC positive (C) requires 12-week confirmation.
Question 2 of 5
A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 6-week history of progressively worsening abdominal pain and night sweats. Physical examination findings were significant for palpable bilateral 2-cm axillary lymph nodes and diffuse abdominal tenderness with no rebound or guarding. Computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis showed retroperitoneal and mesenteric lymphadenopathy. Excisional biopsy of an axillary node was positive for diffuse, large B-cell lymphoma. Positron emission tomography showed fluorodeoxyglucose-avidity in the axillary, mesenteric, and retroperitoneal lymph nodes. Results of the bone marrow examination were normal. Which of the following is the best next step?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Advanced-stage diffuse large B-cell lymphoma requires R-CHOP, improving survival over CHOP alone (C). Observation (B) is for indolent lymphomas. Transplant (D) is for relapse. Radiotherapy (E) suits early-stage disease, not advanced.
Question 3 of 5
Ten years later, the patient described in Questions 3 and 4 experiences recurrent hemarthroses that become refractory to standard doses of factor VIII. The most likely cause of this is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Factor VIII inhibitors (B) are a common complication in hemophilia A, causing resistance to replacement therapy and recurrent bleeds.
Question 4 of 5
Matching: Hemolytic anemia - Spectrin deficiency
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spectrin deficiency is a hallmark of hereditary spherocytosis (A), leading to membrane instability.
Question 5 of 5
Matching: Anemia - Aplastic anemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aplastic anemia (B) is normocytic due to marrow failure without RBC size alteration.