ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 20-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department (ED) several hours after taking 25 to 30 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets. Which action will the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Give N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It helps replenish glutathione, which is depleted by acetaminophen metabolism. This prevents liver damage. Choice B, chelation therapy, is not indicated for acetaminophen overdose. Choice C, oxygen therapy, is not directly related to acetaminophen overdose treatment. Choice D, drinking water, will not address the overdose and may not be safe in high doses. Therefore, the best course of action is to administer N-acetylcysteine to prevent liver damage in acetaminophen overdose.
Question 2 of 9
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) differs from conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because CRRT removes solutes and water slowly, which is beneficial for hemodynamically unstable patients. This slow removal allows for gradual fluid and electrolyte balance adjustments, reducing the risk of hemodynamic instability. A: Incorrect - A hemofilter is indeed used in CRRT, but this choice does not highlight the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis. B: Incorrect - CRRT actually provides slower solute and water removal compared to intermittent hemodialysis. C: Incorrect - Diffusion does occur in CRRT, as it is a key mechanism for solute removal in the process. In summary, the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis is the slow removal of solutes and water in CRRT, making choice D the correct answer.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient with chroni c obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment would be a cue to the patient developing postoperative pneumonia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Change in sputum characteristics. This is a cue for postoperative pneumonia in a COPD patient because it can indicate an infection in the lungs. Postoperative pneumonia is a common complication in patients with COPD due to impaired lung function and weakened immune system. Other choices are incorrect: A) Bradycardia is not a specific indicator of postoperative pneumonia. C) Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis can be seen in patients with COPD but are not specific to postoperative pneumonia. D) Pursed-lip breathing is a coping mechanism for patients with COPD and is not directly related to postoperative pneumonia.
Question 4 of 9
The patient diagnosed with acute respiratory distress synd rome (ARDS) would exhibit which symptom?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in ARDS, there is a severe impairment in gas exchange leading to hypoxemia. Decreasing PaO2 levels despite increased FiO2 administration indicate poor oxygenation, a hallmark of ARDS. Elevated alveolar surfactant levels (Choice B) do not directly correlate with ARDS pathophysiology. Increased lung compliance with increased FiO2 administration (Choice C) is not characteristic of ARDS, as ARDS leads to decreased lung compliance. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation (Choice D) is not a typical finding in ARDS, as hyperventilation is usually present in an attempt to compensate for hypoxemia.
Question 5 of 9
In the critically ill patient, an incomplete assessment and/or management of pain or anxiety may be hampered by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Administration of neuromuscular blocking agents can hinder pain or anxiety assessment as it paralyzes the patient, preventing them from communicating discomfort. 2. Delirium may affect the patient's ability to express pain or anxiety, but it does not directly impede assessment and management. 3. Effective nurse communication and assessment skills facilitate, rather than hamper, pain or anxiety assessment. 4. Nonverbal patients can still communicate pain or anxiety through nonverbal cues, so they do not necessarily hinder assessment.
Question 6 of 9
A critically ill patient is not expected to survive this admission. The family asks the nurse how the patient is doing. When answering this question, what should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because providing specific information such as descending trends in parameters helps the family understand the patient's condition objectively. This allows them to prepare emotionally and make informed decisions. Option A is incorrect because false hope should not be given. Option B is not the best approach as the nurse should still provide some information to the family. Option D is inappropriate and insensitive as it focuses on funeral arrangements rather than addressing the family's concerns about the patient's condition.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) following a massive heart attack. When assessing the patient, the nurse notices blood backing up into the IABP catheter. In which order should the nurse take the following actions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Ensuring the IABP console is turned off is crucial to prevent further complications and stop potential harm to the patient. 2. By turning off the IABP console, the nurse can halt the pumping action, allowing assessment of the situation without interference. 3. This action takes priority over other steps as it addresses the immediate issue of blood backing up into the IABP catheter. 4. Once the console is turned off, the nurse can proceed with assessing the patient's vital signs, notifying the healthcare provider, and obtaining supplies if needed. Summary of Incorrect Choices: - Option B: Assessing vital signs and orientation is important, but addressing the malfunction of the IABP takes precedence to prevent harm. - Option C: Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary, but first, the immediate issue of blood backing up into the catheter must be addressed. - Option D: Obtaining supplies for a new catheter is premature without first addressing
Question 8 of 9
To verify the correct placement of an oral endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best initial action by the nurse is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most reliable method to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement in the trachea. This method detects exhaled CO2, indicating proper tube placement in the trachea. It is a quick and efficient way to confirm placement without delay, reducing the risk of complications. A: Auscultating for bilateral breath sounds is not as reliable because breath sounds may be heard even if the tube is misplaced. B: Obtaining a portable chest x-ray is not the best initial action as it takes time and delays confirming tube placement. C: Observing chest movement may not provide conclusive evidence of proper tube placement and can lead to misinterpretation. In summary, using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most accurate and efficient method to verify correct endotracheal tube placement compared to the other options.
Question 9 of 9
A 20-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department (ED) several hours after taking 25 to 30 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets. Which action will the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Give N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It helps replenish glutathione, which is depleted by acetaminophen metabolism. This prevents liver damage. Choice B, chelation therapy, is not indicated for acetaminophen overdose. Choice C, oxygen therapy, is not directly related to acetaminophen overdose treatment. Choice D, drinking water, will not address the overdose and may not be safe in high doses. Therefore, the best course of action is to administer N-acetylcysteine to prevent liver damage in acetaminophen overdose.