ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 20-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department (ED) several hours after taking 25 to 30 acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets. Which action will the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Give N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It helps replenish glutathione, which is depleted by acetaminophen metabolism. This prevents liver damage. Choice B, chelation therapy, is not indicated for acetaminophen overdose. Choice C, oxygen therapy, is not directly related to acetaminophen overdose treatment. Choice D, drinking water, will not address the overdose and may not be safe in high doses. Therefore, the best course of action is to administer N-acetylcysteine to prevent liver damage in acetaminophen overdose.
Question 2 of 9
When assisting with the placement of a pulmonary artery (PA) catheter, the nurse notes that the catheter is correctly placed when the monitor shows a:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for Answer D being correct: 1. PA catheter measures PA pressures. 2. PAWP reflects left atrial pressure. 3. Correct placement shows typical PAWP tracing. 4. PA pressure waveform (A) is not specific to PAWP. 5. Systemic arterial pressure tracing (B) is unrelated. 6. Systemic vascular resistance tracing (C) is not monitored by PA catheter.
Question 3 of 9
Family members have a need for information. Which intervention best assists in meeting this need?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because providing a daily update of the patient's progress and facilitating communication with the intensivist directly addresses the family members' need for information in a timely and personalized manner. This intervention ensures that the family is kept informed about the patient's condition and treatment plan, fostering transparency and trust. It also allows for any questions or concerns to be addressed promptly, aiding in the family's understanding and involvement in the patient's care. Now, let's summarize why the other choices are incorrect: A: Handing out a pamphlet may provide information, but it lacks the personalized touch and real-time updates that are crucial for meeting the family's need for information. C: Restricting information and only allowing family members to be present at specific times may create frustration and hinder communication, not effectively meeting their information needs. D: Providing a list of medications is helpful, but it does not offer a comprehensive update on the patient's progress or facilitate direct communication with the medical team, which are
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following are physiological effects of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) used in the treatment of acute respiratory distress syndrom e (ARDS)? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase functional residual capacity. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) helps increase the functional residual capacity by keeping the alveoli open at the end of expiration. This prevents alveolar collapse, improves ventilation-perfusion matching, and enhances oxygenation. B: Prevent collapse of unstable alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP actually helps prevent the collapse of all alveoli, not just unstable ones. C: Improve arterial oxygenation - This is partially correct, but the primary mechanism through which PEEP improves oxygenation is by increasing functional residual capacity. D: Open collapsed alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP helps prevent alveolar collapse rather than actively opening already collapsed alveoli.
Question 5 of 9
An advantage of peritoneal dialysis is that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a decreased risk of peritonitis exists. Peritoneal dialysis involves the insertion of a catheter into the peritoneal cavity, which can introduce bacteria and increase the risk of peritonitis. However, compared to hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis has a lower risk of bloodstream infections and vascular access-related complications, leading to a decreased risk of peritonitis. This advantage makes peritoneal dialysis a favorable option for some patients. Incorrect choices: A: peritoneal dialysis is actually less time-intensive compared to hemodialysis. C: biochemical disturbances are corrected more gradually in peritoneal dialysis. D: the danger of hemorrhage is not specific to peritoneal dialysis.
Question 6 of 9
To verify the correct placement of an oral endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best initial action by the nurse is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most reliable method to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement in the trachea. This method detects exhaled CO2, indicating proper tube placement in the trachea. It is a quick and efficient way to confirm placement without delay, reducing the risk of complications. A: Auscultating for bilateral breath sounds is not as reliable because breath sounds may be heard even if the tube is misplaced. B: Obtaining a portable chest x-ray is not the best initial action as it takes time and delays confirming tube placement. C: Observing chest movement may not provide conclusive evidence of proper tube placement and can lead to misinterpretation. In summary, using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most accurate and efficient method to verify correct endotracheal tube placement compared to the other options.
Question 7 of 9
A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Assessing how long the client has been taking clonidine is crucial as drowsiness is a common side effect that typically improves over time as the body adjusts to the medication. This information helps determine if the drowsiness is a temporary side effect or a more concerning issue. Choice A (constipation) is not directly related to drowsiness as a side effect of clonidine. Choice B (missed doses) may contribute to drowsiness but is not the primary assessment priority. Choice D (tobacco use) is not directly related to clonidine-induced drowsiness.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient an d responds to a high inspiratory pressure alarm. Recognizing possible causes for the alarma, btihrbe.c nomu/rtesset assesses for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disconnection from the ventilator. This is the correct choice because a high inspiratory pressure alarm can indicate a disconnection, leading to inadequate ventilation and increased pressure in the circuit. This can be a life-threatening situation that requires immediate attention. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Coughing or attempting to talk - While coughing or talking may affect the patient's ability to ventilate properly, it is not directly related to the high inspiratory pressure alarm. C: Kinks in the ventilator tubing - Kinks in the tubing may cause increased resistance to airflow, but they are more likely to trigger a low pressure alarm rather than a high inspiratory pressure alarm. D: Need for suctioning - Suctioning may be necessary for airway clearance, but it is not directly related to the high inspiratory pressure alarm.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient in the critical care unit whaobi,r ba.cfotemr/ tebset ing declared brain dead, is being managed by the OPO transplant coordinator. Thir ty minutes into the shift, assessment by the nurse includes a blood pressure 75/50 mm Hg, hear t rate 85 beats/min, and respiratory rate 12 breaths/min via assist/control ventilation. The oxygen saturation (SpO ) is 99% and 2 core temperature 93.8° F. Which primary care provider ord er should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Begin phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) for systolic BP < 90 mm Hg. The nurse should implement this order first because the patient's low blood pressure (75/50 mm Hg) indicates hypotension, which can lead to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Phenylephrine is a vasoconstrictor that can help increase the patient's blood pressure and improve perfusion. It is crucial to address hypotension promptly to prevent further complications. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining the patient's temperature above 96.8°F is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining a basic metabolic panel every 4 hours is not the immediate priority when the patient is experiencing hypotension. Choice D is incorrect as drawing arterial blood gas every 4 hours is not the most urgent intervention needed to address the patient's low blood pressure.