A 20-year-old part-time college student comes to your clinic, complaining of growths on his penile shaft. They have been there for about 6 weeks and haven't gone away. In fact, he thinks there may be more now. He denies any pain with intercourse or urination. He has had three former partners and has been with his current girlfriend for 6 months. He says that because she is on the pill they don't use condoms. He denies any fever, weight loss, or night sweats. His past medical history is unremarkable. In addition to college, he works part-time for his father in construction. He is engaged to be married and has no children. His father is healthy, and his mother has hypothyroidism. On examination the young man appears healthy. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis you see several moist papules along all sides of his penile shaft and even two on the corona. He has been circumcised. On palpation of his inguinal region there is no inguinal lymphadenopathy. Which abnormality of the penis does this patient most likely have?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient in the case presented has multiple moist papules on the penile shaft and corona, which are classic features of condylomata acuminata, also known as genital warts. Condylomata acuminata are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and are typically painless, unlike other conditions such as genital herpes or syphilitic chancre which may be associated with pain or tender sores. Given the patient's history of multiple sexual partners and lack of condom use with his current girlfriend, there is a higher likelihood of exposure to HPV. Condylomata acuminata can be treated with various options including topical agents, cryotherapy, or surgical removal, and it is important to address the potential risk of HPV transmission to sexual partners.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the scenario is consistent with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, typically seen in older males. The findings of a smooth, enlarged prostate on digital rectal examination without discrete masses, along with the absence of other alarming signs such as blood in the urine or on examination, make BPH the most likely diagnosis in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A "red flag" regarding patients presenting with a headache is their age being over 50. This is because new-onset or persistent headaches in individuals over 50 may raise concerns about underlying serious conditions such as temporal arteritis, brain tumor, or other vascular issues. It is important to thoroughly evaluate and consider these possibilities in older patients with headaches to ensure appropriate management and timely intervention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The patient's history of frequent loose stools with cramping, occurring since high school and worsening during periods of nervousness, along with occasional constipation, is characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder that presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and altered bowel habits (diarrhea, constipation, or both) without any evidence of organic disease. The absence of systemic symptoms like fever, weight loss, or blood in the stool, as well as normal physical examination findings, also support the diagnosis of IBS in this case. This condition is often triggered or exacerbated by stress or anxiety. Monitoring stress levels, dietary modifications, and possibly prescription medications may help manage IBS symptoms in this patient.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The description of the patient's left shoulder pain, with a sharp catching pain and a sensation of something grating during overhead movements, in addition to tenderness just below the tip of the acromion in the area of tendon insertions, is suggestive of calcific tendinitis. Calcific tendinitis occurs when calcium deposits form within a tendon, most commonly affecting the rotator cuff tendons. This condition can cause pain, tenderness, and limited range of motion, particularly with certain movements like overhead reaching. The negative drop arm test, lack of limitation with shoulder shrug, absence of tenderness to palpation in the bicipital groove, and the patient not holding his arm close to his side help differentiate calcific tendinitis from other shoulder pathologies like rotator cuff tendinitis, rotator cuff tear, and bicipital tendinitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The presentation of multiple small, blood-red, raised lesions over the anterior chest and abdomen in a middle-aged man raises concern for a condition known as cherry angiomas. Cherry angiomas are common benign vascular growths often seen in middle-aged and older individuals. They are typically asymptomatic and do not require treatment unless they are bothersome to the patient cosmetically.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Finding a bounding carotid pulse suggests a wide pulse pressure, which can be associated with aortic insufficiency. Aortic insufficiency (also known as aortic regurgitation) is characterized by the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole due to incomplete closure of the aortic valve. This results in increased stroke volume and left ventricular pressure, leading to widened pulse pressure and a bounding arterial pulse. Therefore, when a bounding carotid pulse is detected in a patient, it is important to search for signs and symptoms of aortic insufficiency, such as a diastolic murmur heard best at the left sternal border and radiating to the neck.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints. It commonly presents with pain, swelling, and stiffness in multiple small joints such as those in the hands, wrists, and feet. It is more prevalent in females in their 30s to 50s. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by chronic inflammation of the synovial membrane, leading to joint damage and deformities over time. Laboratory tests showing elevated inflammatory markers, such as C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), along with positive rheumatoid factor and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies, can help in confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Weight loss can have a significant impact on the health problems associated with obesity. Even a modest weight loss of around 10% can lead to noticeable improvements in conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, osteoarthritis, and obstructive sleep apnea. Encouraging Mr. Curtiss to focus on achieving a meaningful but achievable goal, such as a 10% weight loss, can help him experience positive changes in his health and overall wellbeing, even if his ultimate goal weight seems far away. This approach can also help to boost his motivation and confidence in his ability to make progress towards better health.