A 20-year-old man is diagnosed to have acute schizophrenia. Which of the following is an appropriate first-line treatment?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Acute schizophrenia requires antipsychotics for positive symptoms (e.g., hallucinations). IV haloperidol is for acute agitation, not first-line outpatient treatment. IM flupentixol, a long-acting typical antipsychotic, suits maintenance, not initial therapy. Oral olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is first-line, balancing efficacy (D2/5-HT2 blockade) and lower extrapyramidal risk, suitable for a young patient. Procyclidine treats parkinsonism, not schizophrenia. Fluoxetine is for depression. Olanzapine's oral route and profile make it ideal for initial management, promoting adherence and tolerability.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Androgens, primarily testosterone, are secreted by the testes' Leydig cells, stimulated by luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary, making the testes the direct source. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from the pituitary regulates sperm production, not androgen secretion. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus triggers pituitary LH and FSH release, indirectly influencing androgen production, not secreting it. The pituitary releases LH and FSH, not androgens itself. The testes' role as the endocrine organ producing androgens is clear, driven by LH, and is fundamental to male reproductive and secondary sexual characteristics, setting it apart from regulatory hormones in the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A P450 enzyme inducer (e.g., rifampin) speeds metabolism of itself and other drugs, reducing its own effect over time as levels drop faster, requiring dose adjustments. No effect on others is extreme-some drugs' metabolism increases, lowering their effect. Increased effects suggest inhibition, not induction. Self-induction lowers efficacy, a pharmacokinetic principle affecting long-term use.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Aging reduces liver/renal clearance, raising plasma levels (e.g., digoxin), heightening response and toxicity risk, per pharmacokinetics. Body water drops, concentrating drugs, not diluting. Doses decrease, not increase-metabolism slows. Absorption may slow, but pH rises, not falls. Plasma increase drives effects, key in elders.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The best instruction by the nurse for a client taking calcium supplements is option B: "Take your calcium with a meal." This is the correct answer because calcium is best absorbed when taken with food. Food helps the body better absorb and utilize the calcium supplement, leading to improved effectiveness. Option A, "This drug may cause insomnia," is incorrect because insomnia is not a common side effect of calcium supplements. Providing this information may cause unnecessary concern or confusion for the client. Option C, "It does not matter if vitamin D is added," is incorrect because vitamin D is essential for the absorption of calcium. Instructing the client that it does not matter if vitamin D is added could lead to inadequate absorption of calcium, resulting in potential health issues. Option D, "Take them on an empty stomach," is also incorrect. Taking calcium supplements on an empty stomach can reduce their absorption and effectiveness. Instructing the client to take them on an empty stomach would be counterproductive to achieving the desired health benefits. In an educational context, it is crucial for nurses to provide accurate and clear instructions regarding medication administration to ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes for their patients. Understanding the proper timing and conditions for taking medications, such as calcium supplements, is essential in promoting patient safety and adherence to the prescribed regimen. By explaining the rationale behind the correct answer and addressing why the other options are incorrect, nurses can empower their patients to make informed decisions about their health.