Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because atypical, community-acquired pneumonia often presents with subtle symptoms like a low-grade fever and malaise. Clear lung fields on auscultation are typical as atypical pneumonia affects the interstitium rather than the alveoli. Choice B is incorrect as crackles throughout the lung fields are indicative of typical pneumonia affecting the alveoli. Choice C is incorrect because a sore throat is not a typical symptom of atypical pneumonia, and diminished breath sounds are not typically associated with atypical pneumonia. Choice D is incorrect because a temperature of 102°F and dyspnea are more indicative of a more severe pneumonia, and diminished lung sounds are not typically associated with atypical pneumonia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3+. Bounding pulses indicate a 3+ strength on a scale of 0 to 3. This reflects increased blood flow or pressure in the arteries, which can be a sign of conditions like peripheral vascular disease. A strength of 0 indicates no palpable pulse, 1+ is weak and thready, 2+ is normal, and 3+ is bounding. In this case, the patient's history of coronary artery disease and diabetes may contribute to the increased blood flow, leading to bounding pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the strength of the pulses based on the given assessment findings.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop aspirin and begin apixaban 5 mg twice a day. The rationale is that for stroke risk reduction in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation, anticoagulation therapy with direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) like apixaban is preferred over antiplatelet therapy like aspirin. DOACs have been shown to be more effective in reducing stroke risk with a lower bleeding risk compared to warfarin. Choice A is incorrect as aspirin alone is not sufficient for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. Choice B is incorrect as warfarin has more monitoring requirements and potential drug interactions compared to DOACs like apixaban. Choice D is incorrect as aspirin and apixaban together are not recommended due to increased bleeding risk.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because syphilis during pregnancy can lead to adverse outcomes for the fetus, such as spontaneous abortion or congenital syphilis. This is due to the ability of the Treponema pallidum bacterium to cross the placenta and infect the fetus. Testing pregnant women for syphilis helps identify and treat the infection early to prevent these complications. Choice B is incorrect because hormonal changes do not trigger activation of latent syphilis. Choice C is incorrect as syphilis can be transmitted to the fetus at any point during pregnancy, not just in the third trimester. Choice D is incorrect because while untreated syphilis can have various complications, neonatal respiratory distress is not a direct consequence of syphilis infection during pregnancy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinal stenosis. The symptoms described suggest neurogenic claudication, which is a hallmark of spinal stenosis. Pain worsening with ambulation and improving with lumbar flexion is characteristic of spinal stenosis due to narrowing of the spinal canal leading to compression of nerves. Ankylosing spondylitis (A) presents with inflammatory back pain and stiffness, not neurogenic claudication. Bursitis (C) involves inflammation of bursae, not typically associated with leg pain and numbness. Cauda equina syndrome (D) presents with sudden-onset severe back pain, urinary retention, and saddle anesthesia, which are not consistent with the described symptoms.