ATI RN
ABVD chemotherapy drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 20-year-old male college student returns from a trip to India complaining of fever and malaise. A peripheral blood smear confirms the suspicion of malaria. The physician prescribes chloroquine and sends the patient home. What is the problem with this physician's choice of treatment of this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chloroquine treats blood-stage malaria (e.g., Plasmodium falciparum), but primaquine is needed to eradicate liver-stage hypnozoites (e.g., Plasmodium vivax or ovale), which are common in India and prevent relapse.
Question 2 of 5
A 57-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with crushing chest pain. She reports having a similar episode 2 weeks ago while shoveling snow, but the pain was much less and it went away as soon as she stopped shoveling. An ECG reveals ST segment elevation, and the doctor administers a fibrinolytic drug. Her symptoms resolve, but later she begins to vomit up blood. Which would be an appropriate medication to give now?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aminocaproic acid is an antifibrinolytic that inhibits plasmin, counteracting the bleeding (e.g., hematemesis) caused by excessive fibrinolysis from the fibrinolytic drug.
Question 3 of 5
A 32-year-old woman found out 1 month ago that she has HIV disease. She began a HAART regimen after learning her HIV status. Now she presents with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Serum amylase is elevated. If her condition is related to her medications, which drug is most likely the cause of her symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor in HAART, is commonly associated with gastrointestinal side effects and pancreatitis (elevated amylase), due to its metabolic effects.
Question 4 of 5
A 22-year-old sexually active male presents to his primary care physician with painful urination and urethral discharge. Gram stain of discharge fluid shows gram-negative diplococci. He is given ceftriaxone for gonococcal infection. What additional medication, if any, should he be given?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Doxycycline is added to ceftriaxone to treat possible co-infection with Chlamydia trachomatis, which often accompanies gonorrhea and requires a different antibiotic class.
Question 5 of 5
A 67-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a viral infection. She has a 45 pack-year history of smoking, and past medical history includes COPD. The virus causing her infection has a specific M2 ion channel that can be blocked by certain antivirals. With which virus is she infected?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Influenza A has an M2 ion channel that can be blocked by antivirals like amantadine or rimantadine, making it the likely infection in this COPD patient with a viral illness.