Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Final Exam Pathophysiology Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 20-year-old college student has presented to her campus medical clinic for a scheduled Pap smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear will examine cell samples for evidence of:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is changes in cell shape, size, and organization (Choice A). Pap smears are performed to detect potential precancerous or cancerous conditions by examining the cells for any abnormalities in their shape, size, or organization. This helps in identifying early signs of cervical cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Pap smears primarily focus on detecting cellular changes associated with cancer, not unexpected cell types, ischemic changes, or abnormally high numbers of cells.

Question 2 of 5

What specific instructions should the nurse provide for proper administration of alendronate (Fosamax) in a patient with osteoporosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take alendronate with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is essential to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper drug absorption. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate should not be taken with milk due to potential interactions. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to take the medication at bedtime specifically. Choice D is incorrect as taking alendronate with food can decrease its absorption.

Question 3 of 5

A patient has developed a decubitus ulcer on the coccyx. What defense mechanism is most affected by this homeostatic change?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, a decubitus ulcer on the coccyx indicates a breakdown of the skin's integrity due to prolonged pressure. The skin is the primary defense mechanism of the body against external pathogens. When the skin is compromised, it can lead to infections and other complications. The mucous membrane (Choice A) plays a role in protecting internal surfaces, not the skin. The respiratory tract (Choice B) is involved in breathing and not directly related to the skin's defense. The gastrointestinal tract (Choice D) is responsible for digestion and absorption of nutrients, not the primary defense mechanism against external threats like the skin.

Question 4 of 5

What key contraindication should the nurse emphasize to a patient prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sildenafil is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a synergistic effect that can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no specific contraindication for taking sildenafil with food, having a history of hypertension, or taking it with grapefruit juice. The main concern is the concurrent use of nitrates with sildenafil.

Question 5 of 5

What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.

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