A 19-year-old man attempts suicide after failing all of his college courses. He goes home and takes more than 90 digoxin tablets (0.25 mg each), ingesting them about 3 h prior to presentation at the emergency department. He is brought to the hospital by his brother. Vital signs are as follows: pulse is 50 beats/minute, and the electrocardiogram indicates third-degree heart block. Serum electrolytes are normal. Which of the following is the most important therapy to initiate in this patient?

Questions 31

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ATI Practice Exam Pharmacology The Endocrine System Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 19-year-old man attempts suicide after failing all of his college courses. He goes home and takes more than 90 digoxin tablets (0.25 mg each), ingesting them about 3 h prior to presentation at the emergency department. He is brought to the hospital by his brother. Vital signs are as follows: pulse is 50 beats/minute, and the electrocardiogram indicates third-degree heart block. Serum electrolytes are normal. Which of the following is the most important therapy to initiate in this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Digoxin overdose (bradycardia, heart block) requires digoxin immune Fab , binding free digoxin to reverse toxicity. Amiodarone and lidocaine treat arrhythmias but not the cause. Potassium and verapamil (E) worsen hyperkalemia or block. Fab is urgent here.

Question 2 of 9

The client takes diphenhydramine (Benadryl) but forgets to tell the physician about this drug when a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) drug is prescribed for depression. What will the best assessment by the nurse reveal?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Diphenhydramine with MAOIs risks hypertensive crisis due to norepinephrine excess, a life-threatening interaction. Depression , seizures , and allergy control are secondary. D prioritizes urgent assessment, making it the best focus.

Question 3 of 9

A 19-year-old man attempts suicide after failing all of his college courses. He goes home and takes more than 90 digoxin tablets (0.25 mg each), ingesting them about 3 h prior to presentation at the emergency department. He is brought to the hospital by his brother. Vital signs are as follows: pulse is 50 beats/minute, and the electrocardiogram indicates third-degree heart block. Serum electrolytes are normal. Which of the following is the most important therapy to initiate in this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Digoxin overdose (bradycardia, heart block) requires digoxin immune Fab , binding free digoxin to reverse toxicity. Amiodarone and lidocaine treat arrhythmias but not the cause. Potassium and verapamil (E) worsen hyperkalemia or block. Fab is urgent here.

Question 4 of 9

Angiotension II receptor agents medications

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Angiotensin II receptor agents, also known as angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), have medication names that typically end in "sartan." Examples of angiotensin II receptor agents include losartan, valsartan, irbesartan, and telmisartan. Therefore, option A, "sar-tan," is the correct answer that matches the medication naming convention for this drug class.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse is monitoring a post-renal transplantation client taking cyclosporine (Neoral). The nurse observes an elevation in one of the client's vital signs and the client is complaining of sweating and

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant medication commonly used in post-renal transplantation clients to prevent organ rejection. One of the common side effects of cyclosporine is hypertension, which can lead to an elevation in pulse rate. The increase in pulse rate is a compensatory mechanism by the body in response to increased blood pressure. Additionally, sweating can also be a side effect of cyclosporine, adding to the client's discomfort. Therefore, when a nurse observes an elevation in pulse rate along with sweating in a post-renal transplantation client taking cyclosporine, it is important to monitor closely for signs of hypertension and assess the need for further evaluation or intervention.

Question 6 of 9

A patient is concerned about the adverse effects of the fibric acid derivative she is taking to lower her cholesterol level. Which is an adverse effect of this class of medication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Fibric acid derivatives, also known as fibrates, are a class of medications commonly used to lower cholesterol levels. One of the potential adverse effects of fibric acid derivatives is joint pain. Patients taking these medications may experience muscle and joint pain, also known as myalgia and arthralgia. It is important for patients to report any new or worsening joint pain while taking fibric acid derivatives to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

Question 7 of 9

A 29-year-old woman has a positive pregnancy test. She presents to her primary care physician for confirmation. She has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections, headaches, seizure disorder, and pulmonary embolus. Her current medications include acetaminophen, ciprofloxacin, warfarin, valproic acid, and methotrexate. Which of the following medications could be maintained at its current dose during her pregnancy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Pregnancy limits medication safety. Acetaminophen is safe, used for pain with minimal fetal risk. Ciprofloxacin risks cartilage damage. Methotrexate and Valproic acid are teratogenic. Warfarin (E) causes fetal bleeding. Acetaminophen's profile suits her needs.

Question 8 of 9

The nurse reviews the list of medications and is aware that red blood cell production can be stimulated with which drug for anemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a recombinant form of erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production. It is used to treat anemia, particularly in patients with chronic kidney disease or those undergoing chemotherapy. Filgrastim and sargramostim stimulate white blood cell production, while interleukin 2 is used to boost the immune system. The nurse should recognize epoetin alfa as the appropriate drug for managing anemia and monitor the patient's hemoglobin levels during treatment.

Question 9 of 9

A patient has just received a prescription for an enteric-coated stool softener. When teaching the patient, the nurse should include which statement?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Enteric-coated medications are designed to resist dissolution in the stomach and release the active ingredient in the intestines. Chewing or crushing the tablet can compromise the coating, leading to premature drug release and potential irritation of the stomach lining. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the patient to swallow the tablet whole without chewing. Taking the tablet with orange juice or avoiding other medications is not necessary, and crushing the tablet is contraindicated. Proper administration ensures the medication's effectiveness and minimizes the risk of adverse effects.

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