A 19 year old female is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. What is a common treatment prescribed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis due to its efficacy against the causative bacteria. It specifically targets anaerobic bacteria commonly found in the vaginal flora. Azithromycin (B) is used to treat respiratory infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Amoxicillin (C) is an antibiotic for different types of infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Ciprofloxacin (D) is more commonly used for urinary tract infections. Therefore, Metronidazole is the most appropriate choice for treating bacterial vaginosis in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because all the statements provided in choices A, C, and D are true about oral contraceptives (OCs). A: Estrostep, Ortho Tri-Cyclen, Beyaz, and YAZ are indeed approved for managing acne in women. C: OCs do favorably affect menstrual symptoms by reducing cramps, menstrual flow volume, and duration. D: OCs have been shown to decrease the risk for several disorders, including ovarian cancer, endometrial cancer, ovarian cysts, pelvic inflammatory disease, and benign breast disease. Therefore, since all the statements are true, the correct answer is B.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Propranolol. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that has shown efficacy in preventing migraines by reducing the frequency and severity of attacks. It is considered the first-line drug for migraine prevention due to its well-established effectiveness and safety profile. Propranolol works by reducing the excitability of the nervous system and preventing the dilation of blood vessels in the brain, which are key factors in migraine pathophysiology. Topiramate (B) is also commonly used for migraine prevention, but it is usually considered as a second-line option after propranolol due to its side effects and tolerability issues. Ergotamine (C) is used for acute migraine treatment, not prevention. Metoclopramide (D) is primarily used for treating nausea and vomiting associated with migraines, not for prevention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because untreated hypothyroidism during pregnancy can lead to permanent neuropsychologic deficits in the baby. Thyroid hormones are crucial for fetal brain development. If the mother's thyroid levels are not adequately controlled, it can impact the baby's cognitive and neurological development. Choice B is incorrect as hypothyroidism is not a normal effect of pregnancy and can have serious consequences if left untreated. Choice C is incorrect as treatment for hypothyroidism is essential during pregnancy regardless of symptoms to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Choice D is incorrect as the danger to the fetus exists throughout the pregnancy, not just in the third trimester.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: No switching brands. When it comes to thyroid hormone replacement, consistency in the brand is crucial for stable hormone levels. Switching brands can lead to variations in dosage and affect treatment efficacy. A: Disulfiram like reaction with alcohol is not relevant to thyroid hormone replacement. B: Increased risk of endometrial cancer is not associated with thyroid hormone replacement. C: Contraindicated in pregnancy is not universally true and depends on the specific brand and individual patient circumstances.