ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 19-year-old community college student is brought to the emergency department with a severe headache he describes as"like nothing I've ever had before." His temperature is 40°C, and his neck is stiff. What do these signs and symptoms suggest?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The signs and symptoms - severe headache, high fever, and neck stiffness - in a young adult point towards meningeal inflammation. The combination of these symptoms is indicative of a potential infection or inflammation of the meninges, the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. The presence of fever and neck stiffness, in addition to the severe headache, raises concern for meningitis, an infection of the meninges. This is a medical emergency that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Head injury usually presents with a history of trauma, which is not mentioned in the scenario. B: Cluster headaches typically do not present with fever and neck stiffness. C: Migraine headaches do not typically cause such high fever and neck stiffness.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse. While assessing his mouth, the nurse notices a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate. This could be an early sign of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The dark red confluent macule on the hard palate is known as Kaposi's sarcoma, a common manifestation of AIDS. This lesion is caused by Human Herpesvirus 8 and is often seen in patients with compromised immune systems. Measles (B) typically presents with a rash, not a dark red macule. Leukemia (C) does not typically manifest as a dark red macule in the mouth. Carcinoma (D) refers to cancer and would present differently than Kaposi's sarcoma. In summary, the presence of a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate in a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse is highly suggestive of AIDS, specifically Kaposi's sarcoma.
Question 3 of 9
A 40-year-old woman reports a change in mole size, accompanied by colour changes, itching, burning, and bleeding over the past month. She has a dark complexion and has no family history of skin cancer, but she has had many blistering sunburns in the past. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's symptoms (change in mole size, color changes, itching, burning, bleeding) are concerning for melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Given her history of blistering sunburns, early evaluation and referral are crucial for timely intervention. Option A is incorrect as it delays necessary evaluation. Option C is irrelevant as the symptoms suggest a serious condition, not environmental irritants. Option D is incorrect as compound nevi typically do not present with the described symptoms and are not common in this age group.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is performing middle ear assessment on a 15-year-old patient who has a history of chronic ear infections. When examining the right tympanic membrane, the nurse sees dense white patches. The tympanic membrane is otherwise unremarkable. It is pearly, with the light reflex at 5 o'clock and visible landmarks. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: know that these are scars caused from frequent ear infections. The presence of dense white patches on the tympanic membrane in a patient with a history of chronic ear infections indicates scarring from previous infections. This is a common finding in individuals who have experienced recurrent middle ear infections. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Fungal infections typically present with different characteristics such as discoloration or debris in the ear canal, not dense white patches on the tympanic membrane. C) Blood in the middle ear would manifest as redness or hemorrhage, not white patches. D) While scarring may affect hearing, the description of the tympanic membrane in this case does not suggest any immediate concern for hearing loss.
Question 5 of 9
During an examination of a 3-year-old child, the nurse notes a bruit over the left temporal area. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a bruit in a 3-year-old child, especially over the temporal area, is not a normal finding and could indicate a serious underlying issue such as an arteriovenous malformation or other vascular abnormality. Stopping the examination and notifying the physician is crucial for further evaluation and management. A: Continuing the examination is not appropriate as the bruit should prompt further investigation. B: Checking again in 1 hour is unnecessary delay in addressing a potentially serious issue. C: Notifying the parents alone without medical intervention may delay necessary evaluation and treatment.
Question 6 of 9
When examining the nares of a 45-year-old patient who complains of rhinorrhea, itching of the nose and eyes, and sneezing, the nurse notes the following: pale, swollen turbinates and clear rhinorrhea. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Allergic rhinitis. The patient's symptoms of rhinorrhea, itching, and sneezing, along with pale, swollen turbinates and clear rhinorrhea, are indicative of allergic rhinitis. Allergic rhinitis is characterized by an allergic response to allergens, leading to inflammation of the nasal passages and increased mucus production. Nasal polyps (choice A) typically present with nasal congestion and reduced sense of smell. Acute sinusitis (choice B) would likely present with purulent nasal discharge and facial pain/pressure. Nasal carcinoma (choice D) is unlikely in this case due to the patient's symptoms and age.
Question 7 of 9
A 45-year-old farmer comes in for skin evaluation and complains of hair loss. He has noticed that the hair on his head seems to be breaking off in patches and that there is some scaling on his scalp. The nurse would begin the examination suspecting:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: tinea capitis. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp that can cause hair loss, scaling, and breakage of hair. In this case, the patient's symptoms of hair loss, patchy hair breakage, and scaling on the scalp are consistent with tinea capitis. The nurse should suspect tinea capitis based on the presentation of these specific symptoms in the patient. Summary: - B: tinea corporis is a fungal infection of the skin, not the scalp, so it is not the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms. - C: toxic alopecia refers to hair loss due to exposure to toxins, which is unlikely in this case based on the symptoms described. - D: seborrheic dermatitis is a common skin condition that causes redness, scaly patches, and dandruff on the scalp, but it does not typically cause hair loss in the same way as tinea capitis
Question 8 of 9
When using an otoscope to assess the nasal cavity, which of the following would the nurse need to do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When using an otoscope to assess the nasal cavity, it is crucial to avoid touching the nasal septum with the speculum to prevent discomfort or injury to the patient. Touching the nasal septum can cause pain and potential damage. Incorrect Choices: A: Inserting the speculum at least 3 cm into the vestibule is not necessary and may cause discomfort or injury to the patient. C: Displacing the nose to the side being examined is not required and may not provide any additional benefit during the assessment. D: Keeping the speculum tip medial to avoid touching the floor of the nares is not as critical as avoiding contact with the nasal septum, which is more sensitive and can be easily injured.
Question 9 of 9
A few days after a summer hiking trip, a 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a rash. On examination, the nurse notes that the rash is red and circular with central clearing, and is located across his midriff and behind his knees. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lyme disease. The presentation of a red circular rash with central clearing, known as erythema migrans, following a hiking trip in the summer is highly indicative of Lyme disease. The specific distribution of the rash across the midriff and behind the knees aligns with typical areas where the rash appears in Lyme disease cases. This rash is a hallmark sign of early Lyme disease caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. Other answer choices are incorrect because rubeola presents with a different rash pattern, an allergy to mosquito bites would not typically present in this manner, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever typically presents with a different rash appearance and distribution.