ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 17-year-old student is a swimmer on her high school's swim team. She has had three bouts of otitis externa so far this season and wants to know how to prevent it. The nurse instructs her to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Rubbing alcohol or 2% acetic acid eardrops help to maintain the pH balance in the ear canal, making it less conducive to bacterial growth. 2. These eardrops also help to dry out excess moisture, reducing the risk of otitis externa. 3. By using these eardrops after every swim, the student can prevent the recurrence of otitis externa. Summary of other choices: A: Using a cotton-tipped swab can push wax deeper into the ear canal, increasing the risk of infection. C: Irrigating the ears can introduce water into the ear canal, potentially worsening the condition. D: Mineral oil and hydrogen peroxide can be harsh on the delicate skin of the ear canal, causing irritation.
Question 2 of 9
A 68-year-old woman is in the eye clinic for a checkup. She tells the nurse that she has been having trouble reading the paper, sewing, and even seeing the faces of her grandchildren. On examination, the nurse notes that she has some loss of central vision but her peripheral vision is normal. These findings suggest that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: she may have macular degeneration. Macular degeneration is characterized by loss of central vision while peripheral vision remains intact. In this case, the woman's difficulty with tasks that require central vision, such as reading and recognizing faces, points towards macular degeneration. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Her symptoms indicate a specific vision problem, not just age-related changes. C: Cataracts typically cause blurred vision, not loss of central vision. D: Glaucoma typically affects peripheral vision first before progressing to central vision loss.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse. While assessing his mouth, the nurse notices a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate. This could be an early sign of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The dark red confluent macule on the hard palate is known as Kaposi's sarcoma, a common manifestation of AIDS. This lesion is caused by Human Herpesvirus 8 and is often seen in patients with compromised immune systems. Measles (B) typically presents with a rash, not a dark red macule. Leukemia (C) does not typically manifest as a dark red macule in the mouth. Carcinoma (D) refers to cancer and would present differently than Kaposi's sarcoma. In summary, the presence of a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate in a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse is highly suggestive of AIDS, specifically Kaposi's sarcoma.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when examining the eyes of a patient of African descent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A dark retinal background. This is because individuals of African descent typically have a higher concentration of melanin in their eyes, resulting in a darker retinal background. This can affect the appearance of the fundus during eye examinations. Incorrect choices: A: Increased night vision - Night vision is not directly influenced by melanin levels in the eyes and is more related to the function of rods and cones in the retina. C: Increased photosensitivity - Melanin provides some protection against UV light, so individuals with darker retinas may have lower photosensitivity. D: Narrowed palpebral fissures - Palpebral fissures refer to the opening between the eyelids and are not typically influenced by melanin levels in the eyes.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse has just completed a lymph assessment on a 60-year-old healthy female patient. The nurse knows that most lymph nodes in healthy adults are normally:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: not palpable. In healthy adults, most lymph nodes are not palpable as they are typically small and not easily detectable through touch. This indicates normal lymphatic function and absence of significant inflammation or infection. Choices A, C, and D describe characteristics of abnormal lymph nodes, such as being shotty, large/firm/fixed, or rubbery/discrete/mobile, respectively, which are indicative of pathological conditions like infection, malignancy, or inflammation. Therefore, the absence of palpable lymph nodes in a healthy individual is the expected norm.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following statements about otoscopic examination of a newborn would be true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the normal eardrum of a newborn can appear thick and opaque due to the presence of vernix or desquamated epithelium. Immobility of the drum (Choice A) is not a normal finding in a newborn and could indicate a problem. An "injected" membrane (Choice B) would suggest inflammation or infection, not necessarily infection. The appearance of the membrane in a newborn is not identical to that of an adult (Choice D) as it may have a different color, thickness, or opacity due to developmental differences.
Question 7 of 9
During an examination of a 3-year-old child, the nurse notes a bruit over the left temporal area. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a bruit in a 3-year-old child, especially over the temporal area, is not a normal finding and could indicate a serious underlying issue such as an arteriovenous malformation or other vascular abnormality. Stopping the examination and notifying the physician is crucial for further evaluation and management. A: Continuing the examination is not appropriate as the bruit should prompt further investigation. B: Checking again in 1 hour is unnecessary delay in addressing a potentially serious issue. C: Notifying the parents alone without medical intervention may delay necessary evaluation and treatment.
Question 8 of 9
A male patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has come in for an examination and says,"I think that I have the mumps." The nurse would begin by examining the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: parotid gland. This is because mumps typically presents with swelling and tenderness of the parotid glands. The nurse should examine the parotid gland first to assess for these characteristic signs of mumps. Examining the thyroid gland (choice A) is not relevant to mumps. Cervical lymph nodes (choice C) may be swollen in various conditions but are not specific to mumps. Lastly, examining the mouth and skin for lesions (choice D) is not the initial priority when suspecting mumps.
Question 9 of 9
The projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: turbinates. Turbinates are bony projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area for the warming, humidifying, and filtering of inhaled air. Meatus (A) refers to the passages in the nasal cavity, not the projections. Septum (B) is the partition between the nostrils, not the projections. Kiesselbach's plexus (D) is a collection of blood vessels in the nasal septum, not the projections that increase surface area.