ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 17-year-old single mother is describing how difficult it is to raise a 2-year-old by herself. During the course of the interview, she states, "I can't believe my boyfriend left me to do this by myself! What a terrible thing to do to me!" Which of the following responses by the nurse uses empathy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it reflects empathy by acknowledging the mother's feelings without judgment or personal bias. The nurse shows understanding and compassion by recognizing the difficulty of the situation. Incorrect answer A lacks empathy as it simply restates the mother's feeling without demonstrating understanding. Answer B also lacks empathy as it focuses on the boyfriend's actions rather than the mother's feelings. Answer D shows some empathy by acknowledging the difficulty but fails to address the mother's emotional state directly. In summary, answer C is correct because it shows empathy by acknowledging the mother's emotions and validating her experience without judgment or redirection.
Question 2 of 9
A mother brings her child in to the clinic for scalp and hair examination. She says that the child has developed irregularly shaped patches on her head with broken-off, stublike hair, and she is worried that this could be some form of premature baldness. She tells the nurse that the child's hair is always kept very short. The nurse reassures her by telling her that it is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: trichotillomania, which may be caused by her child habitually twirling her hair in an absent-minded way. Trichotillomania is a psychological disorder where individuals have an irresistible urge to pull out their hair. In this case, the broken-off, stublike hair and irregularly shaped patches on the child's head are indicative of hair pulling rather than a medical condition like folliculitis (choice A), traumatic alopecia (choice B), or tinea capitis (choice C). The child's hair being kept very short does not align with the characteristic of these conditions, making trichotillomania the most likely explanation.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is at the clinic because he has recently noticed that the left side of his mouth is paralyzed. He states that he cannot raise his eyebrow or whistle. The nurse suspects that he has:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bell's palsy. Bell's palsy is characterized by sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, resulting in drooping of the face, inability to raise the eyebrow or close the eye, and difficulty with facial expressions and functions like whistling. In this case, the patient's symptoms of left-sided facial paralysis point towards Bell's palsy as the likely diagnosis. Cushing's syndrome (A) is a hormonal disorder, Parkinson's syndrome (B) is a neurodegenerative disorder affecting movement, and a cerebrovascular accident (D) typically presents with more generalized neurological deficits rather than isolated facial paralysis.
Question 4 of 9
A 60-year-old man is at the clinic for an eye examination. The nurse suspects that he has ptosis of one eye. Ptosis is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: drooping of the upper eyelid. Ptosis refers to the drooping of the upper eyelid, which may occur due to weakened eyelid muscles or nerve damage. In this case, the nurse suspects ptosis in the 60-year-old man, which is likely due to age-related muscle weakness. Choice A, a cloudy cornea, is incorrect as it refers to a different eye condition. Choice B, an unequal red reflex, is incorrect as it is related to abnormalities in the retina. Choice D, protruding and bulging eyes, is incorrect as it indicates exophthalmos, a condition typically seen in thyroid eye disease.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is assessing the hearing of a 7-month-old. What would be the expected response to clapping of hands?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because at 7 months, infants typically have developed the ability to localize sounds. When clapping hands, the expected response is for the infant to turn their head towards the sound source, indicating their ability to detect and localize the sound. This behavior reflects the normal auditory development at this age. Choice B is incorrect because by 7 months, infants should show some response to noise, such as turning their head or showing some interest. Choice C is incorrect as the startle and acoustic blink reflex typically occur in response to sudden loud noises, but at 7 months, the infant should also be able to localize the source of the sound. Choice D is incorrect as stopping all movement and appearing to listen is not a typical response expected from a 7-month-old when hearing a sound. Infants at this age are more likely to actively turn towards the sound source to investigate.
Question 6 of 9
When examining the face, the nurse is aware that the two pairs of salivary glands that are accessible to examination are the _____ glands.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, parotid and submandibular glands. The parotid and submandibular glands are the two pairs of salivary glands that are accessible for examination in the face. The parotid gland is located near the ear, while the submandibular gland is located under the jaw. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Occipital and submental glands are not salivary glands accessible for examination in the face. B: Parotid gland is correct, but jugulodigastric gland is not a salivary gland. D: Submandibular gland is correct, but occipital gland is not a salivary gland.
Question 7 of 9
During assessment, the nurse notices that the skin of a patient of Asian descent is yellowish brown in colour. The skin on the hard and soft palate is, however, pink in colour. From this finding, the nurse could probably rule out:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jaundice. Yellowish brown skin coloration along with pink coloration of the hard and soft palate is indicative of jaundice, a condition characterized by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin causes a yellowish discoloration of the skin but does not affect the color of the mucous membranes like the hard and soft palate. Pallor (A) refers to paleness of the skin due to decreased blood flow or anemia, not relevant in this case. Cyanosis (C) is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood, which is not consistent with the presented findings. Iron deficiency (D) may lead to pallor, but it does not cause yellowish brown skin coloration like jaundice.
Question 8 of 9
A 28-year-old Aboriginal woman attending a prenatal visit describes her nutritional intake over the past 24 hours to the nurse. It includes two slices of pizza, two cans of soda, and three cookies. The nurse must:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: discuss how the patient's food choices may affect her health and that of her baby. This is the most appropriate response because it addresses the potential impact of the patient's current diet on her health and the health of her baby during pregnancy. By discussing the implications of her food choices, the nurse can educate the patient on the importance of a balanced and nutritious diet for a healthy pregnancy. This approach promotes awareness and empowers the patient to make informed decisions for her and her baby's well-being. Incorrect choices: A: This option does not provide guidance or education on improving the patient's diet, which is crucial for a healthy pregnancy. B: Focusing on weight gain rather than nutritional content may not address the underlying issue of poor dietary choices. C: Assuming the patient's ability to cook or go grocery shopping may not address the immediate need for dietary education and guidance.
Question 9 of 9
What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with severe pain after surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer pain medication. This is the most appropriate nursing intervention because severe pain post-surgery requires immediate relief to ensure the client's comfort and aid in recovery. Pain medication helps manage pain effectively, improving the client's overall well-being and promoting healing. Monitoring vital signs (choice B) is important but secondary to pain relief in this scenario. Administering IV fluids (choice C) may be necessary for hydration but does not directly address the pain. Administering corticosteroids (choice D) is not typically indicated for severe pain post-surgery.