ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Book Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 17-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant pain that he first felt around his umbilicus. His white blood cell count is 12,000/μL of blood. He is taken to the operating room for emergent laparoscopic appendectomy. About an hour into the surgery, his body temperature spikes and CO2 production rises uncontrollably. What is the next step in the treatment of this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fever and CO2 rise during surgery suggest malignant hyperthermia (MH). Dantrolene , a ryanodine receptor antagonist, halts MH by blocking calcium release. Acetaminophen reduces fever but not MH. Bromocriptine treats neuroleptic syndrome. Diazepam and Naproxen (E) are irrelevant. Dantrolene's specificity saves lives in this surgical emergency.
Question 2 of 5
A 30-year-old male patient who is treated with haloperidol for his diagnosis of schizophrenia is considered to be well-managed symptomatically for his psychotic symptoms. However, he is reporting restlessness, the inability to sit still at the dinner table, and his family notices that he is pacing up and down the hallway frequently. Of the following, which is the best medication to treat this antipsychotic-induced akathisia?
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Haloperidol's D2 blockade causes akathisia—restlessness and pacing—as an EPS. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, reduces akathisia by modulating catecholamine activity, a first-line treatment per guidelines, unlike anticholinergics (benztropine) which target dystonia/parkinsonism. Dantrolene treats muscle spasticity, not akathisia. Amoxapine, an antidepressant, worsens psychosis. Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, risks psychosis exacerbation. Propranolol's efficacy, safety, and specificity for akathisia make it the best choice, replacing D as instructed.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse completes medication education for the client receiving antihistamines. The nurse evaluates that learning has occurred when the client makes which statement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines cause sedation. 'This medication could make me very sleepy' shows understanding, indicating effective education. Alcohol worsens sedation. Fluids aren't key. OTC doesn't mean safe. D ensures safety awareness, making it the best statement.
Question 4 of 5
A child has rickets and is being treated at the clinic. In addition to taking vitamin D as prescribed, what is the best information the nurse can provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rickets, from vitamin D deficiency, improves with sunlight-20 minutes boosts D synthesis, per physiology-plus supplements. Dairy aids calcium, not avoided. Brand vs. generic is irrelevant-efficacy equals. Empty stomach isn't needed-fat aids absorption. Sunlight complements, per treatment.
Question 5 of 5
Propofol in comparison to thiopental sodium:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Propofol produces a faster and clearer recovery than thiopental sodium and is less irritant.