A 17-year-old high school senior presents to your clinic in acute respiratory distress. Between shallow breaths he states he was at home finishing his homework when he suddenly began having right-sided chest pain and severe shortness of breath. He denies any recent traumas or illnesses. His past medical history is unremarkable. He doesn't smoke but drinks several beers on the weekend. He has tried marijuana several times but denies any other illegal drugs. He is an honors student and is on the basketball team. His parents are both in good health. He denies any recent weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. On examination you see a tall, thin young man in obvious distress. He is diaphoretic and is breathing at a rate of 35 breaths per minute. On auscultation you hear no breath sounds on the right side of his superior chest wall. On percussion he is hyperresonant over the right upper lobe. With palpation he has absent fremitus over the right upper lobe. What disorder of the thorax or lung best describes his symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of this 17-year-old high school senior is concerning for a spontaneous pneumothorax. A spontaneous pneumothorax occurs when air enters the pleural space, resulting in lung collapse. Risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax include tall, thin body habitus and smoking. In this case, the patient's sudden onset of right-sided chest pain and severe shortness of breath, along with absent breath sounds on the right side of the chest and hyperresonance on percussion, are consistent with a pneumothorax. The absence of lung sounds and fremitus on palpation over the right upper lobe further support this diagnosis. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and asthma typically present with more chronic symptoms, while pneumonia is usually associated with fever, productive cough, and other signs of infection. Given the history and physical examination findings, spontaneous pneumothorax is the most

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In respiratory distress, the skin between the ribs moves inward with inspiration, a phenomenon known as retractions. This is a sign of increased work of breathing as the body tries to pull in more air due to difficulty in breathing. The inward movement of the skin between the ribs indicates that the individual is not able to generate enough negative pressure in the chest cavity to inhale properly. This can be seen in conditions such as asthma, pneumonia, or other respiratory issues. Skin retractions are a concerning sign and may indicate a severe respiratory compromise that requires immediate medical attention. The other options listed do not specifically describe a characteristic of respiratory distress.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the scenario is consistent with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, typically seen in older males. The findings of a smooth, enlarged prostate on digital rectal examination without discrete masses, along with the absence of other alarming signs such as blood in the urine or on examination, make BPH the most likely diagnosis in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A "red flag" regarding patients presenting with a headache is their age being over 50. This is because new-onset or persistent headaches in individuals over 50 may raise concerns about underlying serious conditions such as temporal arteritis, brain tumor, or other vascular issues. It is important to thoroughly evaluate and consider these possibilities in older patients with headaches to ensure appropriate management and timely intervention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation of this 17-year-old high school senior is concerning for a spontaneous pneumothorax. A spontaneous pneumothorax occurs when air enters the pleural space, resulting in lung collapse. Risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax include tall, thin body habitus and smoking. In this case, the patient's sudden onset of right-sided chest pain and severe shortness of breath, along with absent breath sounds on the right side of the chest and hyperresonance on percussion, are consistent with a pneumothorax. The absence of lung sounds and fremitus on palpation over the right upper lobe further support this diagnosis. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and asthma typically present with more chronic symptoms, while pneumonia is usually associated with fever, productive cough, and other signs of infection. Given the history and physical examination findings, spontaneous pneumothorax is the most

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient in the case presented has multiple moist papules on the penile shaft and corona, which are classic features of condylomata acuminata, also known as genital warts. Condylomata acuminata are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and are typically painless, unlike other conditions such as genital herpes or syphilitic chancre which may be associated with pain or tender sores. Given the patient's history of multiple sexual partners and lack of condom use with his current girlfriend, there is a higher likelihood of exposure to HPV. Condylomata acuminata can be treated with various options including topical agents, cryotherapy, or surgical removal, and it is important to address the potential risk of HPV transmission to sexual partners.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most significant risk factor for breast cancer in the patient's personal and family history is having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer. This is because the age at which a family member was diagnosed with breast cancer can be indicative of potential genetic predispositions that may increase the patient's own risk of developing the disease. Women with a first-degree relative who was diagnosed with breast cancer before menopause (premenopausal) are at a higher risk themselves compared to those with a family history of postmenopausal breast cancer. In this case, the patient's mother had unilateral breast cancer in her 70s, which suggests a higher risk compared to postmenopausal breast cancer. Other factors such as early age at menarche or age at first live birth are also important in assessing breast cancer risk, but having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer is the most significant

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A murmur heard only at the cardiac apex is most likely due to mitral valve pathology. The mitral valve is located near the apex of the heart, and murmurs related to mitral valve issues are typically best heard at the apex during auscultation. Mitral valve diseases such as mitral valve prolapse, mitral stenosis, or mitral regurgitation can lead to the development of a murmur in this location.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The presentation of multiple small, blood-red, raised lesions over the anterior chest and abdomen in a middle-aged man raises concern for a condition known as cherry angiomas. Cherry angiomas are common benign vascular growths often seen in middle-aged and older individuals. They are typically asymptomatic and do not require treatment unless they are bothersome to the patient cosmetically.