ATI RN
Maternal Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 17-year-old client presents to the clinic with concerns that she has not begun menstruating. She states that she is a gymnast and has been competing since she was 9 years old. Based on this history, what does the nurse know the client is most likely experiencing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primary amenorrhea. A 17-year-old who has not started menstruating is experiencing primary amenorrhea. This is likely due to her intense physical activity as a gymnast, which can delay the onset of menstruation. Secondary amenorrhea (A) occurs when menstruation stops after it has already begun. Polycystic ovary syndrome (B) is characterized by hormonal imbalances and ovarian cysts, not delayed onset of menstruation. Dysmenorrhea (D) refers to painful menstruation, which is not the issue in this case.
Question 2 of 5
The client calls the nurse and states she has not had a menstrual cycle in 3 months. What does the nurse know is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pregnancy. In the case of secondary amenorrhea, where a woman stops menstruating after previously having regular cycles, pregnancy is the most common cause. Pregnancy leads to a halt in the menstrual cycle due to hormonal changes to support the developing fetus. Other choices are incorrect: A) Weight loss can affect menstruation but is not the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea. C) Cancer can also disrupt the menstrual cycle, but it is not the primary cause in this scenario. D) Menopause typically occurs in women in their late 40s to early 50s, and would not be the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in a younger woman.
Question 3 of 5
Which pharmacological preparation is the least effective in relieving symptoms of dysmenorrhea?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen is not an anti-inflammatory medication, unlike Ibuprofen and Naproxen sodium, which are more effective in reducing inflammation and pain associated with dysmenorrhea. Oral contraceptive pills (Choice C) can help regulate hormones to reduce menstrual cramps. Ibuprofen and Naproxen sodium (Choices A and D) are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) that target prostaglandins, which play a role in causing menstrual cramps. Acetaminophen, being a mild pain reliever, lacks the anti-inflammatory properties needed to effectively alleviate dysmenorrhea symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
Which should the nurse recommend to the client to relieve premenstrual syndrome (PMS) symptoms? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, decrease fiber intake. High-fiber foods can worsen bloating and digestive issues associated with PMS. By reducing fiber intake, gas and bloating can be minimized, alleviating these symptoms. NSAIDs (A) can help with pain but do not address other PMS symptoms. Exercise (B) can be beneficial, but it may not directly target PMS symptoms. Decreasing caffeine (C) can help with mood swings, but it is not as effective for physical symptoms compared to reducing fiber intake.
Question 5 of 5
A woman is noted to have multiple soft warts on her perineum and rectal areas. The nurse suspects that this client has which type of infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: HPV. Human papillomavirus (HPV) causes soft warts in the perineum and rectal areas. HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection known to cause genital warts. The other choices are incorrect because HIV does not typically present with warts, syphilis manifests with painless sores rather than soft warts, and herpes simplex virus causes painful blisters rather than soft warts in the specified areas.