A 17-year-old client has been admitted to the hospital for hyperemesis gravidarum. Which factor likely caused her condition?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Being an adolescent. Adolescents are at higher risk for hyperemesis gravidarum due to hormonal changes and inadequate nutritional intake. Adolescents often experience rapid growth and increased nutritional demands, leading to a higher susceptibility to conditions like hyperemesis gravidarum. High levels of hCG (A) are common in pregnancy and can contribute to nausea and vomiting but are not the primary cause of hyperemesis gravidarum. High blood pressure (B) is not directly related to hyperemesis gravidarum. Being underweight (D) may exacerbate the condition but is not the primary factor causing hyperemesis gravidarum in this case.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should get baseline blood pressure and pulse and monitor frequently during administration to assess the effectiveness and safety of the medication. This is crucial in managing severe pre-eclampsia. Choice A is incorrect because the client should be positioned on her left side to prevent vena cava compression, not supine with the head of the bed elevated. Choice C is incorrect because administering medication every 5 minutes without proper monitoring can lead to adverse effects like hypotension. Choice D is incorrect because hydralazine does not cause a positive direct Coombs test result. It is important for the nurse to provide accurate information to the client.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a significant risk factor for pre-eclampsia due to the increased strain on the cardiovascular system and potential inflammatory effects. It can lead to hypertension and vascular dysfunction, contributing to the development of pre-eclampsia. White race (A) is not a specific risk factor for pre-eclampsia. Multiparity (B) is a risk factor, but obesity has a higher association with pre-eclampsia. Infertility (D) is not a known risk factor for pre-eclampsia. In summary, obesity poses the highest risk due to its direct impact on cardiovascular health and inflammation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because progesterone is recommended for women with a history of preterm birth due to cervical incompetency. Progesterone helps to reduce the risk of another preterm birth by supporting the cervix and preventing it from opening too early. It is important for the nurse to discuss the action and side effects of progesterone with the patient to ensure informed decision-making. Choice A is incorrect as an abdominal ultrasound is not directly related to managing cervical incompetency. Choice B is incorrect as positioning the patient on her left side does not address the issue of cervical incompetency. Choice D is also incorrect as monitoring blood pressure is not the primary intervention for managing cervical incompetency in this case.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a urine dipstick showing protein of 3+ indicates significant proteinuria, a sign of preeclampsia in pregnancy. Preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby, such as eclampsia and fetal growth restriction. The nurse should further assess the client's blood pressure, perform additional tests for preeclampsia, and closely monitor the client's condition. Choice A: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are within normal range for pregnancy and do not require immediate intervention. Choice B: Blood pressure of 130/80 is slightly elevated but not concerning at this gestational age. Close monitoring is recommended. Choice C: Slight pedal swelling is common in pregnancy due to fluid retention and usually does not indicate a serious issue.