ATI RN
Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 16-year-old high school junior is brought to your clinic by his father. The teenager was taught in his health class at school to do monthly testicular self-examinations. Yesterday when he felt his left testicle it was enlarged and tender. He isn't sure if he has had burning with urination and he says he has never had sexual intercourse. He has had a sore throat, cough, and runny nose for the last 3 days. His past medical history is significant for a tonsillectomy as a small child. His father has high blood pressure and his mother is healthy. On examination you see a teenager in no acute distress. His temperature is 8 and his blood pressure and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis, he is uncircumcised and has no lesions or discharge. His scrotum is red and tense on the left and normal appearing on the right. Palpating his left testicle reveals a mildly sore swollen testicle. The right testicle is unremarkable. An examining finger is put through both inguinal rings, and there are no bulges with bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. Urine analysis is also unremarkable. What abnormality of the testes does this teenager most likely have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute orchitis. Orchitis is inflammation of the testicle that can cause testicular enlargement and tenderness. In this case, the teenager presents with a swollen and sore left testicle, which aligns with the symptoms of orchitis. The patient's history of upper respiratory symptoms suggests a viral infection, which can lead to orchitis. The normal prostate exam and urine analysis rule out prostatitis. Acute epididymitis typically presents with pain and swelling in the epididymis, not the testicle itself. Torsion of the spermatic cord would present with sudden, severe testicular pain and is an emergency requiring immediate surgical intervention.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is not a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors in older adults?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are not known to cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which are more commonly associated with antipsychotic medications. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, irritation, and hyponatremia in older adults due to their effects on serotonin levels and platelet function. Extrapyramidal symptoms involve movement disorders like tremors and muscle rigidity, which are not typically seen with SSRIs. Therefore, A is the correct answer.
Question 3 of 9
Treatment for early PD in an otherwise healthy older patient without significant functional impairment should begin with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dopamine agonist. In early PD, dopamine agonists are preferred due to their lower risk of motor complications compared to levodopa. Dopamine agonists help improve motor symptoms by directly stimulating dopamine receptors. COMT inhibitors are usually used in combination with levodopa to prolong its effects. Levodopa is effective but can lead to motor complications with long-term use. Careful observation is not a treatment strategy and delays symptom management. Therefore, starting with a dopamine agonist is the most suitable option for early PD to manage symptoms effectively with minimal risk of motor complications.
Question 4 of 9
Which is the appropriate medication for a 31-year-old pregnant woman diagnosed with a UTI?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Cefuroxime and nitrofurantoin are safe for use in pregnancy and effective against UTIs. 2. Cefuroxime is a cephalosporin antibiotic, considered safe in pregnancy. 3. Nitrofurantoin is a first-line agent for UTIs in pregnancy due to its safety profile. 4. Ciprofloxacin and tetracycline are contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus. 5. Amoxicillin is considered safe in pregnancy but not as effective as nitrofurantoin for UTIs.
Question 5 of 9
A grandmother brings her 13-year-old grandson to you for evaluation. She noticed last week when he took off his shirt that his breastbone seemed collapsed. He seems embarrassed and tells you that it has been that way for quite a while. He states he has no symptoms from it and he just tries not to take off his shirt in front of anyone. He denies any shortness of breath, chest pain, or lightheadedness on exertion. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is in sixth grade and just moved in with his grandmother after his father was deployed to the Middle East. His mother died several years ago in a car accident. He states that he does not smoke and has never touched alcohol. On examination you see a teenage boy appearing his stated age. On visual examination of his chest, you see that the lower portion of the sternum is depressed. Auscultation of the lungs and heart are unremarkable. What disorder of the thorax best describes your findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Funnel chest (pectus excavatum). Pectus excavatum is characterized by a depressed or sunken appearance of the sternum, which matches the description provided in the case. In this condition, the chest wall is abnormally shaped inward. This can be a congenital condition or develop during growth spurts in adolescence. The lack of symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, or lightheadedness on exertion is consistent with pectus excavatum, as these symptoms are not typically associated with this condition. The other choices (A: Barrel chest, C: Pigeon chest, D: Thoracic kyphoscoliosis) do not match the specific findings described in the case and are not associated with the characteristic sternal depression seen in pectus excavatum.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for an older adult who is having difficulty with swallowing. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent aspiration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide thickened liquids and soft foods. This intervention helps prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of food or liquids entering the airway. Thickened liquids are easier to control while swallowing, decreasing the chance of aspiration. Soft foods are also easier to chew and swallow, further reducing the risk. Choice A is incorrect because eating quickly can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after meals can actually increase the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect as large meals can increase the likelihood of swallowing difficulties and aspiration.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of chronic smoking presents with a persistent cough and weight loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lung cancer. The patient's symptoms of chronic smoking, persistent cough, and weight loss are concerning for malignancy. Lung cancer is a common consequence of long-term smoking and can present with these symptoms. Chronic bronchitis (A) typically presents with cough and mucus production but not necessarily weight loss. Emphysema (C) is characterized by shortness of breath and is less likely to cause weight loss. Asthma (D) usually presents with wheezing and shortness of breath, not typically weight loss.
Question 8 of 9
When measuring the fundal height of a pregnant female at 32 weeks gestation, which measurement would the NP suspect fetal growth?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 32 cm. At 32 weeks gestation, fundal height should typically correspond to the number of weeks of gestation. This is known as the McDonald's rule. The NP would suspect fetal growth if the fundal height is not within a range of +/- 2 cm from the expected measurement. In this case, 32 cm aligns with the expected fundal height for a pregnancy at 32 weeks gestation. Therefore, it indicates appropriate fetal growth. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the expected fundal height for a pregnancy at 32 weeks gestation, suggesting possible issues with fetal growth.
Question 9 of 9
What was the primary significance of the Crookes tube in the development of modern imaging technologies?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It was the first device to produce X-rays. The Crookes tube, invented by William Crookes, was crucial in the development of modern imaging technologies because it was the first device to produce X-rays. X-rays revolutionized medical diagnostics and imaging, leading to significant advancements in healthcare. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary significance of the Crookes tube was its role in producing X-rays, not demonstrating electromagnetic radiation principles, paving the way for the electron microscope, or advancements in nuclear medicine.