A 16-year-old high school junior is brought to your clinic by his father. The teenager was taught in his health class at school to do monthly testicular self-examinations. Yesterday when he felt his left testicle it was enlarged and tender. He isn't sure if he has had burning with urination and he says he has never had sexual intercourse. He has had a sore throat, cough, and runny nose for the last 3 days. His past medical history is significant for a tonsillectomy as a small child. His father has high blood pressure and his mother is healthy. On examination you see a teenager in no acute distress. His temperature is 8 and his blood pressure and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis, he is uncircumcised and has no lesions or discharge. His scrotum is red and tense on the left and normal appearing on the right. Palpating his left testicle reveals a mildly sore swollen testicle. The right testicle is unremarkable. An examining finger is put through both inguinal rings, and there are no bulges with bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. Urine analysis is also unremarkable. What abnormality of the testes does this teenager most likely have?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute orchitis. Orchitis is inflammation of the testicle that can cause testicular enlargement and tenderness. In this case, the teenager presents with a swollen and sore left testicle, which aligns with the symptoms of orchitis. The patient's history of upper respiratory symptoms suggests a viral infection, which can lead to orchitis. The normal prostate exam and urine analysis rule out prostatitis. Acute epididymitis typically presents with pain and swelling in the epididymis, not the testicle itself. Torsion of the spermatic cord would present with sudden, severe testicular pain and is an emergency requiring immediate surgical intervention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because clinical diagnosis of anxiety or depression can indeed have an effect on frailty rates. Anxiety and depression can contribute to the development and progression of frailty through various mechanisms such as decreased physical activity, poor nutrition, and social isolation. This can lead to a higher risk of frailty in individuals with mental health issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because both prominent frailty models (e.g., Fried's phenotype model and Rockwood's accumulation of deficits model) do consider age as a component for defining frailty, individuals who are prefrail are at a higher risk of progressing to frailty rather than becoming robust, and frailty diagnosis has been shown to be valuable in preoperative assessment as it helps identify patients who may not do well with surgical interventions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why B is correct: Janeway lesions, petechiae, and Osler nodes are classic signs of infective endocarditis. Janeway lesions are painless erythematous macules on palms/soles, petechiae are small red/purple spots due to microemboli, and Osler nodes are tender subcutaneous nodules on fingers/toes. These findings indicate systemic embolization and immune complex deposition in infective endocarditis. Other choices are incorrect as they do not typically present with these specific dermatologic findings.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obtain an ultrasound of the liver. This is the most appropriate next step to assess the patient's enlarged liver in the context of COPD. Ultrasound can provide detailed images of the liver to identify potential causes of enlargement, such as fatty liver disease or liver cirrhosis. Percussing the lower border (Choice A) or measuring the span of the liver (Choice B) may provide some information but are less specific and may not identify the underlying cause. Ordering a hepatitis panel (Choice C) would focus only on viral hepatitis as a potential cause, while an ultrasound can provide a broader evaluation of liver structure and function.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Suprapubic. Disorders in the kidneys and ureters typically cause pain in the flank, abdomen, and back due to the location of these organs. The kidneys are located in the flank region, so kidney issues may cause flank pain. Ureters run down towards the bladder, so issues in this area can cause pain in the abdomen and back. Suprapubic pain usually indicates issues with the bladder or lower urinary tract, not the kidneys or ureters. Therefore, suprapubic pain is not typically associated with disorders in the kidneys and ureters.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lower dose of antibiotics. The rationale is that the patient has early renal insufficiency, which means the kidney may have difficulty clearing medications from the body. Therefore, a lower dose of antibiotics is needed to prevent potential drug toxicity. A shorter course of antibiotics (choice A) may not be effective in treating pneumonia adequately. A longer course of antibiotics (choice B) may increase the risk of drug accumulation in the body. A higher dose of antibiotics (choice D) can lead to increased toxicity in a patient with renal insufficiency. Thus, the most appropriate option is to reduce the dose to ensure safe and effective treatment.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Bill's symptoms of epigastric pain lasting 30 minutes or more can be indicative of peptic ulcer, pancreatitis, or myocardial ischemia. Peptic ulcer can cause epigastric pain, pancreatitis presents with severe epigastric pain, and myocardial ischemia can manifest as epigastric discomfort. Considering all these possibilities is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. The other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all potential causes of Bill's symptoms. It is important to consider a broad differential diagnosis to ensure comprehensive evaluation and management.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Cefuroxime and nitrofurantoin are safe for use in pregnancy and effective against UTIs. 2. Cefuroxime is a cephalosporin antibiotic, considered safe in pregnancy. 3. Nitrofurantoin is a first-line agent for UTIs in pregnancy due to its safety profile. 4. Ciprofloxacin and tetracycline are contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus. 5. Amoxicillin is considered safe in pregnancy but not as effective as nitrofurantoin for UTIs.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because asking the patient to describe what happened will provide crucial information about the onset, nature, and potential cause of the knee pain. This open-ended question allows the patient to share their experience freely, aiding in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment planning. Option A focuses solely on pain intensity, which is important but not as comprehensive as understanding the context of the pain (D). Options B and C are more specific to past injuries and onset time, respectively, which are relevant but not as immediate and all-encompassing as asking the patient to describe the current issue (D).