A 16-year-old adolescent was vaccinated with DTP. In eight days there was stiffness and pain in the joints, subfebrile temperature, urticarial skin eruption, enlargement of inguinal, cervical lymph nodes and spleen. What kind of allergic reaction is observed?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypersensitivity of delayed type. The symptoms described occur 5-10 days after exposure to the antigen, consistent with a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction involves T cells and is characterized by cell-mediated immune response, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are associated with different mechanisms of allergic reactions. Immunocomplex reactions (choice A) involve antigen-antibody complexes depositing in tissues, immediate hypersensitivity reactions (choice B) involve IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation, and cytotoxic reactions (choice C) involve antibodies targeting specific cells for destruction.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Pear-shaped protozoa with two nuclei, four pairs of flagella, two axostyles, and a ventral adhesive disc match the characteristics of Giardia lamblia. Step 2: Giardia lamblia is commonly found in the duodenum and causes giardiasis. Step 3: Lamblia is the correct answer as it specifically matches all the described characteristics. Summary: B, Toxoplasma, is incorrect as it does not match the described features. C, Leishmania, does not have the specific characteristics mentioned. D, Intestinal trichomonad, does not match the detailed descriptions given.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cell wall. Mycoplasma species lack a cell wall, making them unique among bacteria. This is because they have a flexible cell membrane that provides structural support instead of a rigid cell wall. The absence of a cell wall allows them to be pleomorphic and gives them resistance to certain antibiotics targeting cell wall synthesis. Plasma membrane (B), DNA (C), and ribosomes (D) are present in Mycoplasma species, so they are not the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Rubella virus belongs to the Togaviridae family, which typically exhibits icosahedral symmetry. Step 2: Icosahedral symmetry refers to a structure with 20 equilateral triangular faces, which is characteristic of many viruses, including rubella. Step 3: Therefore, choice A is correct as rubella virus indeed has icosahedral type of symmetry. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. - Choice C is incorrect as rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. - Choice D is incorrect as rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: H antigen. Flagellar antigen is typically referred to as the H antigen in bacteria. Flagella are the whip-like structures used for movement in bacteria, and the H antigen is specifically associated with the flagella. The other choices (A: D antigen, C: K antigen, D: F antigen) are not related to flagella in bacteria and are commonly associated with other types of antigens in bacterial classification.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, Salmonella enterica causes salmonellosis, and Escherichia coli can cause foodborne illnesses such as E. coli infection. All three bacteria are associated with foodborne illnesses due to contamination of food or water sources. Therefore, selecting "All of the above" is the most appropriate choice as it includes all the bacteria commonly linked to foodborne illnesses. The other choices (A, B, and C) are incorrect because they do not encompass all the bacteria associated with foodborne illnesses as stated above.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive rods with terminal spores suggest Clostridium genus. 2. Terminal spores are characteristic of Clostridium perfringens. 3. C. perfringens is known to cause wound infections. 4. Therefore, the most likely causative agent is Clostridium perfringens. Summary: A: Clostridium perfringens is correct due to its characteristic features and association with wound infections. B: Bacillus anthracis does not typically form terminal spores. C: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not wound infections. D: Bacillus cereus does not produce terminal spores like Clostridium perfringens.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because the presence of cysts with four nuclei is characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica, a protozoan parasite that causes amoebic dysentery. Entamoeba histolytica cysts contain four nuclei, distinguishing them from other pathogens. Giardia lamblia and Trichomonas vaginalis are not associated with cysts containing four nuclei. Balantidium coli is a ciliated protozoan that does not typically form cysts with multiple nuclei. In summary, the unique feature of four nuclei in the cysts points towards Entamoeba histolytica as the most likely causative agent of the diarrhea in this patient.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the correct answer because it is the specific bacterium responsible for causing gonorrhea. It is a sexually transmitted infection that primarily affects the genital tract. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is transmitted through sexual contact and can lead to symptoms such as painful urination, discharge, and pelvic pain. Chlamydia trachomatis (Choice B) is another sexually transmitted bacterium, but it causes chlamydia, not gonorrhea. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Choice C) is responsible for tuberculosis, a different infectious disease that primarily affects the lungs. Treponema pallidum (Choice D) causes syphilis, another sexually transmitted infection that presents with distinct symptoms from gonorrhea. Therefore, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the correct choice for causing gonorrhea due to its specific association with this particular infection.