A 16 y.o. boy from a countryside entered an educational establishment. Scheduled Manteux test revealed that the boy had negative reaction. What are the most reasonable actions in this case?

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Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 16 y.o. boy from a countryside entered an educational establishment. Scheduled Manteux test revealed that the boy had negative reaction. What are the most reasonable actions in this case?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To perform serodiagnostics of tuberculosis. Rationale: The negative reaction to the Mantoux test indicates absence of TB infection. Performing serodiagnostics will further confirm the absence of active infection. This is important to rule out TB before considering vaccination or isolation measures. Summary: A: BCG vaccination is not necessary as the boy shows a negative reaction to the Mantoux test. B: Repeating the test in a month is unnecessary as the initial test already showed a negative reaction. D: Isolating the boy is not warranted as there is no evidence of active TB infection.

Question 2 of 9

The correct sequence of stages in the multiplication of animal viruses is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence of stages in the multiplication of animal viruses is as follows: 1. Adsorption: Virus attaches to host cell. 2. Penetration: Virus enters host cell. 3. Uncoating: Viral genetic material is released. 4. Replication: Viral genetic material replicates. 5. Assembly: New viral particles are assembled. 6. Release: New viral particles are released from the host cell. Choice A is correct as it follows the correct chronological order of virus multiplication stages. Choice B is incorrect as it has the wrong order of penetration and adsorption. Choice C is incorrect as it has the wrong order of adsorption, uncoating, and penetration. Choice D is incorrect as it has the wrong order of penetration and uncoating.

Question 3 of 9

Microorganisms that show optimal growth in moderate temperatures (between 25° C and 40° C) are called:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: mesophiles. Mesophiles are microorganisms that thrive in moderate temperatures, typically between 25°C and 40°C. This temperature range is ideal for their growth and reproduction. Thermophiles (A) prefer high temperatures, psychrophiles (B) thrive in cold temperatures, and psychrotrophs (D) can grow at refrigeration temperatures but have an optimal range above 20°C. Therefore, the mesophiles are the best fit for organisms that show optimal growth in moderate temperatures.

Question 4 of 9

Which one belongs to genus Orthopoxvirus

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of these. Orthopoxvirus genus includes Vaccinia, Smallpox, and Cowpox viruses. They share similar characteristics such as brick-shaped virions and double-stranded DNA genomes. Vaccinia virus is used in smallpox vaccine, Smallpox virus caused the eradicated disease, and Cowpox virus can infect both animals and humans. Therefore, all three viruses belong to the Orthopoxvirus genus. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they each represent a different virus from the genus Orthopoxvirus.

Question 5 of 9

A Gram-stained smear from a wound infection revealed Gram-positive cocci arranged in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci arranged in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative characteristics are indicative of Staphylococcus species. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal that causes wound infections. Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase-positive and often causes more aggressive infections. Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative and typically forms chains, not clusters. Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and commonly found in the GI tract, not a common cause of wound infections.

Question 6 of 9

A 52-year-old patient has the following diagnosis: systemic amebiasis with involvment of intestines, liver, lungs. What drug should be prescribed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. It is the drug of choice for treating systemic amebiasis due to its high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. Metronidazole is well-absorbed, reaches therapeutic levels in the intestines, liver, and lungs, making it effective in treating the multi-organ involvement in this case. Choice B: Quiniofone is not a recommended treatment for amebiasis. Choice C: Tetracycline is not the first-line treatment for systemic amebiasis. Choice D: Quingamine is not a recognized drug for treating amebiasis.

Question 7 of 9

A sample of a finished dosage form was found to be contaminated with some microorganisms exhibiting the following properties: greenish fluorescent colonies of gram-negative nonsporeforming bacilli that grew on the medium for the detection of pyocyanin. The bacilli release the bluegreen pigment into the medium. What microorganisms contaminated the finished dosage form?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacilli that produce pyocyanin, a blue-green pigment. The presence of greenish fluorescent colonies of gram-negative nonsporeforming bacilli that release blue-green pigment matches the characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Now, let's analyze the other choices: B: Enterobacteriaceae - While some Enterobacteriaceae can be gram-negative bacilli, they do not typically produce pyocyanin or exhibit the specific characteristics described in the question. C: Staphylococcus aureus - Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive cocci, not a gram-negative bacilli. It does not match the given description. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis - Staphylococcus epidermidis is also a gram-positive cocci, not a gram-negative bacilli. It does

Question 8 of 9

The normal flora present in the healthy male reproductive system is best characterized as:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The male reproductive system is considered sterile as it does not have a natural microbiota. 2. Any presence of microorganisms in this system could indicate an infection or disease. 3. Therefore, choice C, sterile with no normal flora, is the best characterization. Summary: A: Incorrect - The male reproductive system does not typically have gram-positive rods. B: Incorrect - Acid-fast rods are not part of the normal flora in the male reproductive system. D: Incorrect - The male reproductive system does not typically have gram-positive spore formers.

Question 9 of 9

Which bacteria is responsible for causing syphilis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Treponema pallidum is a spirochete bacterium known to cause syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection. Step 2: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, not syphilis. Step 3: Chlamydia trachomatis is responsible for causing chlamydia, not syphilis. Step 4: Escherichia coli is commonly found in the gut and can cause gastrointestinal infections, not syphilis. Summary: Treponema pallidum is the correct answer as it is the specific bacterium associated with syphilis, while the other choices are responsible for different infections.

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