A 16 y.o. boy from a countryside entered an educational establishment. Scheduled Manteux test revealed that the boy had negative reaction. What are the most reasonable actions in this case?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To perform serodiagnostics of tuberculosis. Rationale: The negative reaction to the Mantoux test indicates absence of TB infection. Performing serodiagnostics will further confirm the absence of active infection. This is important to rule out TB before considering vaccination or isolation measures. Summary: A: BCG vaccination is not necessary as the boy shows a negative reaction to the Mantoux test. B: Repeating the test in a month is unnecessary as the initial test already showed a negative reaction. D: Isolating the boy is not warranted as there is no evidence of active TB infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium appears as purple-stained diplococci with pointed ends on Gram staining. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia. It is encapsulated and has a lancet-shaped appearance, which is characteristic of the pointed ends seen in the staining. Staphylococcus aureus (B) typically appears as clusters of gram-positive cocci, not diplococci. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a gram-negative rod, not a diplococci. Neisseria meningitidis (D) is a gram-negative diplococci but typically lacks the pointed ends seen in the staining of S. pneumoniae.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The bacterial capsule is composed of polysaccharides. This outer layer helps bacteria evade the host immune system, protect against desiccation, and aid in attachment to host cells. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugar molecules, providing a protective barrier for the bacteria. Lipopolysaccharides (choice A) are found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and are not a major component of the capsule. Teichoic acid (choice B) is a component of the cell wall in Gram-positive bacteria, not the capsule. Peptidoglycan (choice D) is another component of the cell wall but is not part of the capsule.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Extracellular. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the blood outside of cells, preventing the formation of blood clots. It does not directly affect cellular, neuromuscular, or intracellular processes. By targeting extracellular factors, heparin effectively reduces the ability of blood to clot, making it an effective anticoagulant. The other choices are incorrect because heparin does not act on cellular, neuromuscular, or intracellular sites in the body to decrease blood clotting.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above). All three bacteria (Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, Pseudomonas aeruginosa) produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock. Endotoxins are part of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and can trigger a strong immune response, leading to septic shock when released in large amounts. Escherichia coli and Salmonella enterica are common causes of bacterial septic shock, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for its ability to produce endotoxins that contribute to severe infections and septic shock. Therefore, all three choices are correct in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Corynebacterium diphtheriae. This bacterium causes diphtheria, characterized by a grayish pseudomembrane in the throat. The dark blue-staining rods with polar granules seen in microscopic examination are known as metachromatic granules, which are specific to Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Streptococcus pyogenes (choice B) causes strep throat but does not produce pseudomembranes. Haemophilus influenzae (choice C) can cause respiratory infections but does not typically present with a pseudomembrane. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice D) is a sexually transmitted bacterium and is not associated with the symptoms described.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: mesophiles. Mesophiles are microorganisms that thrive in moderate temperatures, typically between 25°C and 40°C. This temperature range is ideal for their growth and reproduction. Thermophiles (A) prefer high temperatures, psychrophiles (B) thrive in cold temperatures, and psychrotrophs (D) can grow at refrigeration temperatures but have an optimal range above 20°C. Therefore, the mesophiles are the best fit for organisms that show optimal growth in moderate temperatures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A vaccine strain. Virus Fixe is a specific strain of rabies virus used in the production of rabies vaccines. This strain has been attenuated to be safe for use in vaccines. Choice B, a cell culture, is incorrect as it does not specifically refer to Virus Fixe. Choice C, a wild type of rabies virus, is incorrect as Virus Fixe is not a wild type but a modified strain. Choice D, an infectious disease, is incorrect as Virus Fixe is not a disease but a strain of virus used in vaccines.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Koch's postulate states that a microorganism must be isolated in pure culture, grown in a laboratory setting, and then inoculated into animals to reproduce the same disease seen in the original host. This step demonstrates a direct cause-and-effect relationship between the isolated microorganism and the disease. Choice A is incorrect because not all cases of a disease may have the same microorganism present. Choice B is incorrect as isolating the microorganism alone does not prove its pathogenicity. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the need for experimental reproduction of the disease in a new host.