ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 16 y.o. girl is diagnosed with genital herpes. She is tearful and as she asks what she can do to prevent complications of the disease. Based on the data provided, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for her plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for transmission of infection. This is appropriate because the girl has genital herpes, which is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can be transmitted to others through sexual contact. Therefore, the main concern is preventing the spread of the infection to others. Pain (B) is a symptom of herpes but not the primary concern here. Health-seeking behaviors (C) may be relevant for education and prevention, but not the immediate focus. Ineffective sexuality pattern (D) is not directly related to the risk of transmission of infection in this case.
Question 2 of 9
A client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), an autoimmune disorder, is admitted to an acute care facility. Concerned about hemorrhage, the nurse monitors the client’s platelet count and observes closely for signs and symptoms of bleeding. The client is at greatest risk for cerebral hemorrhage when the platelet count falls below:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 20,000/ul. A platelet count below 20,000/ul puts the client at the highest risk for cerebral hemorrhage due to severe thrombocytopenia. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low count increases the risk of spontaneous bleeding, especially in critical organs like the brain. Choices A, C, and D have platelet counts that are higher than the critical level of 20,000/ul, so they do not pose as high a risk for cerebral hemorrhage. Option D, 500/ul, is extremely low and would likely lead to severe bleeding, but the critical threshold for cerebral hemorrhage is considered to be around 20,000/ul.
Question 3 of 9
A 16 y.o. girl is diagnosed with genital herpes. She is tearful and as she asks what she can do to prevent complications of the disease. Based on the data provided, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for her plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for transmission of infection. This is appropriate because the girl has genital herpes, which is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can be transmitted to others through sexual contact. Therefore, the main concern is preventing the spread of the infection to others. Pain (B) is a symptom of herpes but not the primary concern here. Health-seeking behaviors (C) may be relevant for education and prevention, but not the immediate focus. Ineffective sexuality pattern (D) is not directly related to the risk of transmission of infection in this case.
Question 4 of 9
Charles is started on chemotherapy, which is aimed at restoring dopaminergic activities. An example of such a drug is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dopar. Dopar is a drug that increases dopamine levels by converting into dopamine in the brain. This directly restores dopaminergic activities. Artane (A) is an anticholinergic used for Parkinson's symptoms, Elavil (B) is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Benadryl (C) is an antihistamine, none of which directly target dopaminergic activities like Dopar does.
Question 5 of 9
At 1400, the nurse notices that the dressing is saturated and leaking. What is the nurse’s next action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a saturated and leaking dressing indicates a potential infection risk and compromised wound healing. The nurse should revise the plan of care and change the dressing immediately to prevent complications. Waiting until 1800 (choice A) could lead to further contamination and delay in treatment. Reassessing in 2 hours (choice C) might worsen the condition. Discontinuing the plan of care (choice D) is not appropriate without addressing the immediate issue.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse understands that which of the ff. is a side effect most likely to be reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect is a dry, persistent cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. This is a distinctive side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Acne (A), diarrhea (B), and heartburn (D) are not commonly associated with enalapril use and are less likely side effects.
Question 7 of 9
What part of the nursing diagnosis statement suggests the nursing interventions to be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Etiology of the problem. In a nursing diagnosis statement, the etiology describes the underlying cause or contributing factors to the identified problem. This is crucial as it guides the selection of appropriate nursing interventions aimed at addressing the root cause of the issue. By addressing the etiology, nurses can implement interventions that will effectively treat the problem. Choice A (Problem statement) simply identifies the issue without providing insight into its cause. Choice B (Defining characteristics) lists the signs and symptoms of the problem but doesn't directly inform the interventions needed. Choice D (Outcomes criteria) outlines the expected results of the interventions but doesn't directly suggest which interventions to implement. Thus, C is the correct choice as it directly influences the selection of appropriate nursing interventions.
Question 8 of 9
On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, a client exhibits muscle twitching and hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the client reports numbness and tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting a life- threatening electrolyte disturbance, the nurse notifies the surgeon immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows thyroid surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Following thyroid surgery, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia. 2. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include muscle twitching, hyperirritability, numbness, and tingling. 3. These symptoms align with the client's presentation, indicating a probable electrolyte imbalance. 4. Hypocalcemia is a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to parathyroid gland damage. 5. Prompt recognition and treatment of hypocalcemia are essential to prevent severe complications. Summary: B: Hyperkalemia - Not typically associated with thyroid surgery, symptoms differ. C: Hyponatremia - Unlikely post-thyroidectomy, symptoms don't match presentation. D: Hypermagnesemia - Rare post-thyroidectomy, symptoms and electrolyte disturbance don't align.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is providing education to a client with newly diagnosed hypertension about the importance of adhering to prescribed medications. Which phase of the nursing process does this activity represent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. In the nursing process, implementation involves carrying out the care plan, interventions, and education that were determined during the planning phase. Providing education to a client about the importance of adhering to prescribed medications falls under this phase as it involves putting the plan into action to promote positive health outcomes. Assessment (A) involves collecting data about the client's condition, Planning (B) involves developing a care plan based on the assessment findings, and Evaluation (D) involves assessing the effectiveness of the interventions implemented.