ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 16 y.o. girl is diagnosed with genital herpes. She is tearful and as she asks what she can do to prevent complications of the disease. Based on the data provided, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for her plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for transmission of infection. This is appropriate because the girl has genital herpes, which is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can be transmitted to others through sexual contact. Therefore, the main concern is preventing the spread of the infection to others. Pain (B) is a symptom of herpes but not the primary concern here. Health-seeking behaviors (C) may be relevant for education and prevention, but not the immediate focus. Ineffective sexuality pattern (D) is not directly related to the risk of transmission of infection in this case.
Question 2 of 9
The most significant form of meningitis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial meningitis. Bacterial meningitis is the most significant form due to its potential severity and rapid progression, requiring urgent medical intervention with antibiotics. Bacterial meningitis can lead to serious complications such as brain damage or death if left untreated. Septic meningitis (choice B) refers to meningitis caused by a systemic infection spreading to the meninges. Aseptic meningitis (choice C) is typically viral or non-bacterial in origin, usually milder than bacterial meningitis. Viral meningitis (choice D) is less severe than bacterial meningitis and often resolves on its own without specific treatment.
Question 3 of 9
A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a class V Pap test finding indicates severe abnormalities, such as high-grade dysplasia or carcinoma in situ. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to undergo a biopsy as soon as possible to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment promptly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a class V result is not normal and requires immediate follow-up, rather than waiting or repeating the Pap test at a later time.
Question 4 of 9
A client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), an autoimmune disorder, is admitted to an acute care facility. Concerned about hemorrhage, the nurse monitors the client’s platelet count and observes closely for signs and symptoms of bleeding. The client is at greatest risk for cerebral hemorrhage when the platelet count falls below:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 20,000/ul. A platelet count below 20,000/ul puts the client at the highest risk for cerebral hemorrhage due to severe thrombocytopenia. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low count increases the risk of spontaneous bleeding, especially in critical organs like the brain. Choices A, C, and D have platelet counts that are higher than the critical level of 20,000/ul, so they do not pose as high a risk for cerebral hemorrhage. Option D, 500/ul, is extremely low and would likely lead to severe bleeding, but the critical threshold for cerebral hemorrhage is considered to be around 20,000/ul.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is making initial rounds on patients. Which intervention for a patient with poor wound healing should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Observe wound appearance and edges. This is the first intervention the nurse should perform because assessing the wound's appearance and edges provides crucial information about the healing process and any signs of infection. It helps in determining the next steps in the care plan. Reinforcing the dressing (A) and performing dressing changes (B) should come after assessing the wound. Documenting wound characteristics (D) is important but should also follow the initial assessment.
Question 6 of 9
To provide safe care for Mrs. Zeno, it is important for the nurse to check the bedside for the presence of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An intravenous set-up. Checking for an intravenous set-up is crucial to ensure that Mrs. Zeno is receiving necessary medications or fluids. It allows the nurse to monitor the infusion rate, prevent potential complications like infiltration, and ensure proper medication administration. A tracheostomy set (A) may be important for respiratory support but not essential for immediate safety. A hypothermia blanket (B) is used for temperature management and not directly related to Mrs. Zeno's immediate safety. A syringe and edrophonium HCl (D) are specific to a diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis and not necessary for general bedside safety assessment.
Question 7 of 9
An adult is to receive an IM injection of Morphine for post op pain. Which of the following is necessary for the nurse to assess prior to giving a narcotic analgesic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Before administering a narcotic analgesic like Morphine, assessing the client's level of alertness and respiratory rate is crucial to ensure they can tolerate the medication without compromising their breathing. Alertness indicates their ability to handle potential side effects, while respiratory rate is vital to monitor for any signs of respiratory depression. Choice B (last meal) is not directly related to giving a narcotic analgesic, although it may impact the absorption rate. Choice C (bowel habits) and last bowel movement are not immediately relevant to assessing the client's readiness for a narcotic analgesic. Choice D (history of addictions) is important but not the priority when assessing for immediate safety and efficacy of the medication.
Question 8 of 9
A 16 y.o. girl is diagnosed with genital herpes. She is tearful and as she asks what she can do to prevent complications of the disease. Based on the data provided, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for her plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for transmission of infection. This is appropriate because the girl has genital herpes, which is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can be transmitted to others through sexual contact. Therefore, the main concern is preventing the spread of the infection to others. Pain (B) is a symptom of herpes but not the primary concern here. Health-seeking behaviors (C) may be relevant for education and prevention, but not the immediate focus. Ineffective sexuality pattern (D) is not directly related to the risk of transmission of infection in this case.
Question 9 of 9
When caring for an anxious patient with dyspnea, which of the ff. nursing actions is most helpful to include in the plan of care to relieve anxiety?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Staying at patient's bedside. This is the most helpful nursing action because it provides reassurance and support to the anxious patient experiencing dyspnea. By staying at the bedside, the nurse can monitor the patient closely, provide immediate assistance if needed, and offer a calming presence. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Increasing activity levels may worsen the dyspnea and anxiety of the patient. B: Pulling the privacy curtain does not directly address the patient's anxiety or dyspnea. D: Closing the patient's door may make the patient feel isolated and increase anxiety. In summary, staying at the patient's bedside is the most effective nursing action as it addresses both the physical and emotional needs of the anxious patient with dyspnea.