A 15-year-old high school sophomore comes to the clinic for evaluation of a 3-week history of sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; clear nasal discharge; ear pain; and nonproductive cough. Which is the most likely pathologic process?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described, such as sneezing, itchy watery eyes, clear nasal discharge, ear pain, and nonproductive cough, are classic signs of allergic rhinitis, commonly known as seasonal allergies. Allergic rhinitis is an inflammatory response triggered by allergens in the environment such as pollen, dust mites, or pet dander. The immune system overreacts to these allergens, releasing histamine and other chemicals that cause the symptoms experienced by the patient. In this case, the most likely pathologic process underlying the symptoms is an allergic response rather than infection, inflammation, or vascular issues.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When examining a patient with known peripheral vascular disease in the legs, it is important to note the size, symmetry, and skin color of the lower extremities. These aspects can provide valuable information about the circulation and potential complications related to the disease. Changes in size, such as muscle wasting or atrophy, can indicate poor circulation and muscle ischemia. Asymmetry between the two legs may point to a significant difference in blood supply to the limbs. Skin color changes, such as pallor or cyanosis, can suggest impaired blood flow. Monitoring and documenting these findings are crucial for assessing the progression or improvement of the disease and guiding treatment interventions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The presentation of severe testicular pain with a red, tense scrotum, and absent cremasteric reflex on one side is highly concerning for testicular torsion. Testicular torsion is a urologic emergency that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to compromised blood flow to the testicle. The affected testicle can become ischemic and necrotic within hours, necessitating prompt diagnosis and intervention to avoid permanent damage or loss of the testicle.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most likely cause of the 19-year-old college sophomore's joint pain is Lyme disease. The presentation of a red spot shaped like a target (erythema migrans) that spreads, along with joint pain, is classic for Lyme disease. Additionally, the history of camping in an area known to have ticks and the history of using insect repellent support the likelihood of a tick-borne illness like Lyme disease.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presentation is highly suggestive of appendicitis, especially given the migration of pain from the periumbilical region to the right lower quadrant (just medial and inferior to the iliac crest). The worsening of pain with motion, along with associated symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and fever, are typical features of appendicitis. The classic presentation of appendicitis is pain starting around the umbilicus (due to visceral innervation) and then shifting to the right lower quadrant (due to irritation of the parietal peritoneum). Surgical intervention is usually required promptly to prevent complications like perforation, which can lead to peritonitis and sepsis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Research studies have shown that for every increment of 20 mm Hg in systolic blood pressure and 10 mm Hg in diastolic blood pressure, the cardiovascular risk approximately doubles. Therefore, the cardiovascular risk increases by 50% for each increment of 20 mm Hg systolic and 10 mm Hg diastolic in blood pressure. This underlines the importance of maintaining healthy blood pressure levels to reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The group of lymph nodes that lie just behind the sternocleidomastoid muscles bilaterally are known as the posterior cervical lymph nodes. These lymph nodes are part of the superficial cervical lymph node chain, which is involved in draining lymph from the head and neck region. In the case described, the presence of sore throat, fever, and enlarged tonsils with exudates suggests a likely upper respiratory tract infection or tonsillitis, leading to the enlargement of the nearby lymph nodes. The posterior cervical lymph nodes are commonly examined in cases of upper respiratory infections and tonsillitis due to their proximity to the area of infection and inflammation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: HPV (human papillomavirus) infection is a very common sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can affect both men and women. It is the most common STI in the United States. While most cases of HPV infection are asymptomatic and resolve on their own, certain high-risk strains of HPV can lead to the development of various cancers, including cervical cancer. Therefore, HPV infections do cause a small but important number of cervical cancers, making option D the correct choice. Regular screening, such as Pap smears and HPV testing, are crucial for early detection and effective management of HPV-related abnormalities that could progress to cervical cancer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Diminished radial pulses may be seen in patients with arterial emboli. Arterial emboli are blood clots that travel through the bloodstream and get lodged in a blood vessel, blocking blood flow to a certain area. When an embolus affects the arteries supplying the arm, it can lead to diminished pulses in the affected arm, such as the radial pulse in the wrist. This diminished pulse is due to decreased blood flow to the area beyond the blockage caused by the embolus. This distinguishes arterial emboli from the other options listed, as aortic insufficiency, hyperthyroidism, and early "warm" septic shock typically do not cause isolated diminished radial pulses.