ATI RN
Physical Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 15-year-old high school sophomore comes to the clinic for evaluation of a 3-week history of sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; clear nasal discharge; ear pain; and nonproductive cough. Which is the most likely pathologic process?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms described, such as sneezing, itchy watery eyes, clear nasal discharge, ear pain, and nonproductive cough, are classic signs of allergic rhinitis, commonly known as seasonal allergies. Allergic rhinitis is an inflammatory response triggered by allergens in the environment such as pollen, dust mites, or pet dander. The immune system overreacts to these allergens, releasing histamine and other chemicals that cause the symptoms experienced by the patient. In this case, the most likely pathologic process underlying the symptoms is an allergic response rather than infection, inflammation, or vascular issues.
Question 2 of 9
How much does cardiovascular risk increase for each increment of 20 mm Hg systolic and 10 mm Hg diastolic in blood pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Research studies have shown that for every increment of 20 mm Hg in systolic blood pressure and 10 mm Hg in diastolic blood pressure, the cardiovascular risk approximately doubles. Therefore, the cardiovascular risk increases by 50% for each increment of 20 mm Hg systolic and 10 mm Hg diastolic in blood pressure. This underlines the importance of maintaining healthy blood pressure levels to reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases.
Question 3 of 9
Chris is a 20-year-old college student who has had abdominal pain for 3 days. It started at his umbilicus and was associated with nausea and vomiting. He was unable to find a comfortable position. Yesterday, the pain became more severe and constant. Now, he hesitates to walk, because any motion makes the pain much worse. It is localized just medial and inferior to his iliac crest on the right. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presentation is highly suggestive of appendicitis, especially given the migration of pain from the periumbilical region to the right lower quadrant (just medial and inferior to the iliac crest). The worsening of pain with motion, along with associated symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and fever, are typical features of appendicitis. The classic presentation of appendicitis is pain starting around the umbilicus (due to visceral innervation) and then shifting to the right lower quadrant (due to irritation of the parietal peritoneum). Surgical intervention is usually required promptly to prevent complications like perforation, which can lead to peritonitis and sepsis.
Question 4 of 9
The following information is recorded in the health history: "The patient completed 8th grade. He currently lives with his wife and two children. He works on old cars on the weekend. He works in a glass factory during the week." Which category does it belong to?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The information provided pertains to the patient's educational background, living situation, family status, and work activities. This type of information falls under the personal and social history category, as it provides important context about the patient's lifestyle, living conditions, and social support network. Personal and social history is essential for understanding the patient's overall well-being and can impact their health and healthcare needs.
Question 5 of 9
Mrs. Hill is a 28-year-old African-American with a history of SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus). She has noticed a raised, dark red rash on her legs. When you press on the rash, it doesn't blanch. What would you tell her regarding her rash?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The raised, dark red rash that does not blanch when pressed on, typically known as erythema nodosum, is a common skin manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Given Mrs. Hill's history of SLE, it is likely that her rash is related to her autoimmune condition rather than an exposure to a chemical or an allergic reaction. It is important for her to discuss this new symptom with her healthcare provider to ensure appropriate management and monitoring of her lupus.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is true of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: HPV (human papillomavirus) infection is a very common sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can affect both men and women. It is the most common STI in the United States. While most cases of HPV infection are asymptomatic and resolve on their own, certain high-risk strains of HPV can lead to the development of various cancers, including cervical cancer. Therefore, HPV infections do cause a small but important number of cervical cancers, making option D the correct choice. Regular screening, such as Pap smears and HPV testing, are crucial for early detection and effective management of HPV-related abnormalities that could progress to cervical cancer.
Question 7 of 9
A 50-year-old body builder is upset by a letter of denial from his life insurance company. He is very lean but has gained 2 pounds over the past 6 months. You personally performed his health assessment and found no problems whatsoever. He says he is classified as "high risk" because of obesity. What should you do next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Since the life insurance company is classifying the body builder as "high risk" due to obesity, it is important to assess whether his weight gain is primarily fat accumulation around the waist. Measuring his waist circumference can provide valuable information about the distribution of body fat. Abdominal obesity, indicated by an increased waist measurement, is a significant risk factor for health issues such as heart disease, diabetes, and metabolic syndrome. By measuring his waist, you can determine if his weight gain is indeed a cause for concern in terms of health risks, rather than just considering the overall weight gain. This information can help you provide more targeted advice on how to address any potential health concerns related to the weight gain.
Question 8 of 9
His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernia, but on his digital rectal examination you palpate a soft, smooth, nontender pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum. What anal, rectal, or prostate disorder best fits his presentation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A rectal polyp is a growth that originates from the inner lining of the rectum and protrudes into the rectal canal. It may present as a soft, smooth, nontender mass on digital rectal examination. Rectal polyps are usually benign, but some may have the potential to become cancerous if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to evaluate and remove polyps to prevent complications. In this case, the description of a pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum is most suggestive of a rectal polyp.
Question 9 of 9
You are a student in the vascular surgery clinic. You are asked to perform a physical examination on a patient with known peripheral vascular disease in the legs. Which of the following aspects is important to note when you perform your examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When examining a patient with known peripheral vascular disease in the legs, it is important to note the size, symmetry, and skin color of the lower extremities. These aspects can provide valuable information about the circulation and potential complications related to the disease. Changes in size, such as muscle wasting or atrophy, can indicate poor circulation and muscle ischemia. Asymmetry between the two legs may point to a significant difference in blood supply to the limbs. Skin color changes, such as pallor or cyanosis, can suggest impaired blood flow. Monitoring and documenting these findings are crucial for assessing the progression or improvement of the disease and guiding treatment interventions.