A 14-year-old male patient is diagnosed with very high risk acute lymphoblastic leukemia and is likely going to require an allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplant to cure his leukemia. Prior to going to transplant, he is likely to require multiple blood transfusions. Which of the following products or component modifications is the best way to prevent him from developing alloimmunization due to anti-HLA antibodies prior to transplant?

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Anatomy of Hematologic System Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 14-year-old male patient is diagnosed with very high risk acute lymphoblastic leukemia and is likely going to require an allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplant to cure his leukemia. Prior to going to transplant, he is likely to require multiple blood transfusions. Which of the following products or component modifications is the best way to prevent him from developing alloimmunization due to anti-HLA antibodies prior to transplant?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Leukoreduced blood products. Leukoreduction removes white blood cells from the blood product, reducing the risk of alloimmunization due to anti-HLA antibodies. White blood cells are a major source of HLA antigens that can stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies. This process helps prevent the development of alloimmunization, which is crucial for patients undergoing stem cell transplant. A: Frozen RBCs - Freezing does not affect the risk of alloimmunization. B: Volume-reduced blood products - Volume reduction does not specifically target white blood cells or HLA antigens. C: Irradiation of all blood products - Irradiation is used to prevent graft-versus-host disease, not specifically to prevent alloimmunization.

Question 2 of 5

A 12-year-old patient has been referred to you following complete resection with clean margins of a high-grade malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor of the shoulder region. The tumor measured approximately 4 cm in greatest dimension. A CT scan of the chest and a bone scan were within normal limits. The patient does not have evidence of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). Which of the following treatment approaches would you recommend?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Observation. In this case, the patient has undergone complete resection of the tumor with clean margins and there is no evidence of metastasis or neurofibromatosis type 1. Given these factors, observation is the most appropriate approach as there is no indication for adjuvant chemotherapy or radiotherapy. Chemotherapy with doxorubicin and ifosfamide (Choice A) is typically reserved for cases with high-risk features such as incomplete resection or metastasis. Radiotherapy (Choice B) may be considered in certain cases, but in this scenario where surgery was curative and there is no evidence of spread, it is not necessary. Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy (Choice C) may be overly aggressive and carry unnecessary risks for a patient who has already had successful surgery. Thus, observation is the most appropriate approach in this situation.

Question 3 of 5

What is the nurse's priority when caring for a client who just completed a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Check the pressure dressing frequently for signs of excessive or active bleeding. This is the priority because post bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, there is a risk of bleeding due to the procedure. By checking the dressing, the nurse can assess for any signs of excessive bleeding or hematoma formation, which are crucial to prevent complications. A: Teaching the client to avoid activity is important but not the priority immediately post-procedure. B: Administering NSAIDs may not be appropriate as they can increase the risk of bleeding. D: Reporting the lab results is important but not the priority over ensuring immediate post-procedure safety.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client experiencing anemia. Which laboratory findings will the nurse expect for this client? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: b

Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Decreased red blood cell count Rationale: 1. Anemia is defined by a decrease in red blood cells, causing decreased oxygen-carrying capacity. 2. A decreased red blood cell count is a key indicator of anemia. 3. Other choices are incorrect: A. Increased hematocrit is not expected in anemia, as it indicates a higher concentration of red blood cells. C. Decreased serum iron may be seen in iron-deficiency anemia but is not a universal finding in all types of anemia. D. Decreased hemoglobin is a common finding in anemia but is not as specific as a decreased red blood cell count.

Question 5 of 5

The mean cell volume of the patient is 90 fl and the reticulocyte production index is low. Which of the following is the most possible cause of anemia in this patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: A low reticulocyte production index indicates decreased bone marrow response to anemia. Aplastic anemia is characterized by bone marrow failure leading to pancytopenia, causing anemia. Thalassemia results in microcytic anemia, not macrocytic. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes macrocytic anemia due to impaired DNA synthesis. Sideroblastic anemia leads to microcytic anemia due to defective heme synthesis. Therefore, the most likely cause of anemia in this patient with a low reticulocyte production index and normal mean cell volume is aplastic anemia.

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