ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Made Easy 4.0 The Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 13-year-old male has begun having spells of wheezing and difficulty breathing while playing outside. He is diagnosed with asthma and given an inhaler to treat acute attacks. His medication is working well, but he would also like something to prevent attacks from happening. Which of the following drugs would be best to add to his regimen?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Asthma prevention in a child needs a long-acting agent. Salmeterol , a long-acting β2-agonist, reduces attack frequency. Albuterol and Epinephrine are short-acting. Ipratropium aids acute relief. Isoproterenol (E) is outdated. Salmeterol's prolonged bronchodilation suits prophylaxis.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is described as the route of drug administration where the drug is placed directly into the GIT from where absorption occurs.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Enteral drug administration is the route where the drug is placed directly into the gastrointestinal tract (GIT), such as through the mouth (oral administration) or through a feeding tube. Once administered, the drug is absorbed through the walls of the GI tract into the bloodstream for systemic distribution. This is in contrast to parenteral routes where drugs are administered by methods other than through the digestive system, such as injections, inhalation, or topical application. Intravenous (IV) administration, specifically mentioned in the question, is a type of parenteral route where drugs are injected directly into a vein for rapid and complete systemic distribution.
Question 3 of 9
The physician has prescribed haloperidol (Haldol) for the patient with schizophrenia. What is the priority patient outcome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol treats schizophrenia's positive symptoms, but compliance is the priority outcome, as relapse follows non-adherence. Fluids/fiber manage side effects. Hallucination reduction depends on compliance. Restlessness signals issues, not a goal. B ensures treatment success, making it the priority.
Question 4 of 9
The following drugs are most commonly associated with ototoxicity:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gentamicin is highly associated with ototoxicity, especially in patients with preexisting renal impairment or prolonged use.
Question 5 of 9
Peripheral adverse effects of levodopa, including nausea, hypotension, and cardiac arrhythmias, can be diminished by including which of the following drugs in the therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Levodopa's peripheral conversion to dopamine by dopa decarboxylase causes nausea (via chemoreceptor trigger zone stimulation), hypotension, and arrhythmias. Carbidopa, a peripheral dopa decarboxylase inhibitor, prevents this conversion outside the CNS, reducing these side effects while increasing levodopa's brain availability. Amantadine, an NMDA antagonist, boosts dopamine release but doesn't address peripheral metabolism. Ropinirole, a dopamine agonist, bypasses levodopa but doesn't mitigate its effects. Tolcapone, a COMT inhibitor, prolongs levodopa's action but can increase peripheral dopamine if used alone, worsening side effects. Carbidopa's specific blockade of peripheral decarboxylation directly counters these adverse effects, making it the essential adjunct in levodopa therapy.
Question 6 of 9
The client comes to the emergency department with a myocardial infarction. The client's husband tells the nurse that his wife has been taking calcium carbonate (Tums) for years for what she thought was indigestion. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Self-diagnosing with Tums masked a myocardial infarction as indigestion, a common misstep, and noting this educates without blame. Blaming the wife or husband is judgmental and unhelpful. Gladness she's there misses teaching opportunity. Stating self-diagnosis's risks highlights the need for medical evaluation, especially in older adults where cardiac symptoms mimic gastrointestinal issues, fostering awareness gently.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is monitoring a patient taking furosemide for heart failure. Which electrolyte imbalance must the nurse be alert for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, promotes the excretion of potassium, sodium, and water. Hypokalemia (low potassium) is a common side effect and can lead to muscle weakness, arrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (A) is unlikely with furosemide. Hypernatremia (B) and hyponatremia (D) are less common but should still be monitored.
Question 8 of 9
Pharmacogenetics is a relatively new area within pharmacology. Which statement best describes the potential of this new area?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pharmacogenetics tailors drugs to genetic profiles (e.g., CYP2C19 for clopidogrel), minimizing unpredictable idiosyncratic responses like rashes. Reducing drug numbers or errors isn't genetics-driven. Cost and efficacy improve indirectly. Customization prevents adverse reactions, its core potential.
Question 9 of 9
A 13-year-old male has begun having spells of wheezing and difficulty breathing while playing outside. He is diagnosed with asthma and given an inhaler to treat acute attacks. His medication is working well, but he would also like something to prevent attacks from happening. Which of the following drugs would be best to add to his regimen?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Asthma prevention in a child needs a long-acting agent. Salmeterol , a long-acting β2-agonist, reduces attack frequency. Albuterol and Epinephrine are short-acting. Ipratropium aids acute relief. Isoproterenol (E) is outdated. Salmeterol's prolonged bronchodilation suits prophylaxis.