ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Practice Exam B Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 13-year-old boy with moderate asthma presents to the clinic for follow-up. His symptoms appear to be better controlled since adding salmeterol to his regimen. He has had to use his rescue inhaler once over the past 2 weeks during exertion. His breathing at night has improved as well. How does salmeterol exhibit its beneficial effects for asthma?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
A mother asks the nurse when she should give her child cough medicine. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cough medicines, like dextromethorphan, suppress nonproductive (dry) coughs to aid rest, especially when sleep is disrupted . This targets symptomatic relief appropriately, avoiding overuse. Green secretions suggest infection, where suppressing cough could hinder clearance, requiring medical evaluation instead. Fever over 102°F indicates illness severity, not a cue for cough medicine alone. Bronchitis often involves productive cough, where suppressants are less suitable. The nurse's best response (D) aligns with cough suppressants' purpose—relieving dry, disruptive coughs—ensuring safe, targeted use for the child's comfort.
Question 3 of 5
The client receives diphenhydramine (Benadryl) to control allergic symptoms. Which common symptom does the nurse teach the client to report to the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse administers IV magnesium sulfate to a client with preeclampsia. Which finding indicates a therapeutic effect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate prevents seizures in preeclampsia via CNS depression. Absence of seizures indicates therapeutic effect, the primary goal. Decreased BP isn't magnesium's role'antihypertensives manage that. Increased urine output isn't specific. Reduced reflexes signal toxicity, not efficacy. Seizure prevention aligns with magnesium's mechanism, critical in preeclampsia where eclamptic risk is high, making D the key finding of successful therapy.
Question 5 of 5
For a drug that obeys first-order (linear) kinetics and fits a one-compartment model for elimination:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.