A 12 year old girl complains about abrupt weakness, nausea, dizziness, vision impairment. The day before she ate home-made stockfish, beef. Examination revealed skin pallor, a scratch on the left knee, dryness of mucous membranes of oral pharynx, bilateral ptosis, mydriatic pupils. The girl is unable to read a simple text (mist over the eyes). What therapy would be the most adequate in this case?

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Microbiology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 12 year old girl complains about abrupt weakness, nausea, dizziness, vision impairment. The day before she ate home-made stockfish, beef. Examination revealed skin pallor, a scratch on the left knee, dryness of mucous membranes of oral pharynx, bilateral ptosis, mydriatic pupils. The girl is unable to read a simple text (mist over the eyes). What therapy would be the most adequate in this case?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Parenteral introduction of antitetanus serum. The symptoms described in the question, such as bilateral ptosis, mydriatic pupils, and difficulty reading, are indicative of tetanus infection. The source of infection could be the scratch on the knee, which allowed the tetanus bacteria to enter the body. The most appropriate therapy for tetanus is the administration of antitetanus serum to neutralize the tetanus toxin. Antibotulinic serum (choice A) is not appropriate as it is used for botulism, which presents differently. Disintoxication (choice B) is too general and does not address the specific cause of the symptoms. Antibiotics (choice C) are not effective in treating tetanus because it is caused by a toxin, not a bacterial infection. Therefore, the correct course of action is to administer antitetanus serum to the patient.

Question 2 of 9

During an outbreak of cholera, a fecal smear revealed Gram-negative, comma-shaped, motile bacteria. What staining method would best confirm the diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram staining. This method is used to differentiate bacteria based on their cell wall composition. In cholera, the causative agent is Vibrio cholerae, which is Gram-negative. By performing Gram staining, the bacteria will appear pink/red under the microscope, confirming the presence of Gram-negative bacteria. Choice B: Neisser's staining is used for staining capsules of bacteria, not suitable for confirming cholera diagnosis. Choice C: Ziehl-Neelsen staining is used for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, not for confirming cholera diagnosis. Choice D: Burri-Gins staining is not a standard staining method in microbiology and is not relevant for confirming cholera diagnosis.

Question 3 of 9

The proteins implicated in spongiform encephalopathy are __________.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: prions. Prions are misfolded proteins that can cause spongiform encephalopathy by inducing normal proteins to misfold as well. Prions lack genetic material, distinguishing them from viruses (B), bacteria (C), and fungi (D), which all contain genetic material and cannot directly cause spongiform encephalopathy through protein misfolding.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following is not a method used by bacteria to acquire genetic material?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Binary fission. Binary fission is a method of bacterial cell division, not a method of acquiring genetic material. Transformation, conjugation, and transduction are mechanisms through which bacteria can acquire genetic material from other sources. Transformation involves the uptake of naked DNA from the environment, conjugation is the transfer of genetic material through direct cell-to-cell contact, and transduction is the transfer of genetic material via bacteriophages. Therefore, binary fission is the only option that does not involve the acquisition of new genetic material.

Question 5 of 9

A Gram-negative, motile, comma-shaped bacterium was isolated from a stool sample of a patient with diarrhea. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacterium suggests a curved rod morphology, typical of Campylobacter jejuni. Step 2: Motility is a characteristic of Campylobacter species. Step 3: Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of bacterial diarrhea in humans. Step 4: Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, not typically associated with comma-shaped morphology. Shigella dysenteriae and Escherichia coli are not comma-shaped.

Question 6 of 9

How soon after a potentially infectious bite should a person be treated for rabies?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Within 24 hours. Rabies post-exposure prophylaxis should ideally be initiated as soon as possible after a potentially infectious bite to prevent the virus from spreading and causing symptoms. Immediate treatment is crucial to prevent the virus from reaching the central nervous system. Waiting beyond 24 hours increases the risk of the virus reaching the brain and becoming fatal. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting for 6 months, a week, or 2 weeks respectively would significantly delay treatment, allowing the virus to progress and potentially become untreatable.

Question 7 of 9

According to the data of WHO, for about 250 mln of Earth population fall ill with malaria. This disease is mostly spread in tropical and subtropical regions. Range of its spread falls into the area of the following mosquitoes:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Anopheles mosquitoes are the primary vectors for transmitting malaria. 2. They prefer stagnant water for breeding, common in tropical regions. 3. Culex mosquitoes primarily spread diseases like West Nile virus. 4. Aedes mosquitoes transmit diseases like Zika and dengue fever. 5. Mansonia mosquitoes are known for transmitting filarial diseases. Therefore, the correct answer is A (Anopheles), as they are specifically associated with spreading malaria.

Question 8 of 9

In a microslide of the patient's regional lymph node stained with Giemsa method a doctor detected thin microorganisms with 12-14 uniform tendrils with pointed tips, 10-13 micrometers in length, pale pink in color. In this case they can be identified as infectious agents of the following disease:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Leishmaniasis. The description of thin microorganisms with 12-14 uniform tendrils, 10-13 micrometers in length, and pale pink color matches the characteristics of Leishmania parasites seen in Giemsa-stained samples. Leishmania parasites are known to have a distinctive appearance with pointed tips and a specific size range. Syphilis (choice A) is caused by Treponema pallidum, which appears as tightly coiled spirochetes, not tendrils. Trypanosomiasis (choice B) is caused by Trypanosoma parasites, which have a different morphology and staining pattern. Relapsing fever (choice D) is caused by Borrelia recurrentis, which does not match the description given. Therefore, the correct choice is C as the description aligns closely with the characteristic features of Leishmania parasites.

Question 9 of 9

One of the defense mechanisms in place in the organs/tissues of the reproductive tract that prevent microbial infection includes:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: acidic pH. The reproductive tract's acidic pH serves as a defense mechanism by creating an environment hostile to many pathogens, preventing microbial infection. The acidic pH helps to inhibit the growth and survival of harmful microorganisms. A: Alkaline pH would actually be more favorable for microbial growth as most pathogens thrive in neutral to alkaline pH environments. C: High sugar concentration can actually promote microbial growth as many pathogens feed on sugars. D: High body temperature may help in some cases, but it is not as effective as an acidic pH in preventing microbial infection in the reproductive tract.

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