ATI RN
Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 12 year old girl complains about abrupt weakness, nausea, dizziness, vision impairment. The day before she ate home-made stockfish, beef. Examination revealed skin pallor, a scratch on the left knee, dryness of mucous membranes of oral pharynx, bilateral ptosis, mydriatic pupils. The girl is unable to read a simple text (mist over the eyes). What therapy would be the most adequate in this case?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Parenteral introduction of antitetanus serum. The symptoms described in the question, such as bilateral ptosis, mydriatic pupils, and difficulty reading, are indicative of tetanus infection. The source of infection could be the scratch on the knee, which allowed the tetanus bacteria to enter the body. The most appropriate therapy for tetanus is the administration of antitetanus serum to neutralize the tetanus toxin. Antibotulinic serum (choice A) is not appropriate as it is used for botulism, which presents differently. Disintoxication (choice B) is too general and does not address the specific cause of the symptoms. Antibiotics (choice C) are not effective in treating tetanus because it is caused by a toxin, not a bacterial infection. Therefore, the correct course of action is to administer antitetanus serum to the patient.
Question 2 of 9
A 13 year old child complains about poor appetite, pain in the right subcostal area. Microscopical examination of duodenal contents revealed big pyriform cells with two nuclei. What microorganism was revealed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lamblia. The presence of big pyriform cells with two nuclei in the duodenal contents indicates Giardia lamblia infection. This parasite is commonly found in contaminated water and causes symptoms like poor appetite and abdominal pain. Trichomonas, Amoeba, Trypanosoma, and Toxoplasma are not typically associated with these findings and symptoms. Therefore, Lamblia is the most likely microorganism based on the clinical presentation and microscopic examination results.
Question 3 of 9
How soon after a potentially infectious bite should a person be treated for rabies?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Within 24 hours. Rabies post-exposure prophylaxis should ideally be initiated as soon as possible after a potentially infectious bite to prevent the virus from spreading and causing symptoms. Immediate treatment is crucial to prevent the virus from reaching the central nervous system. Waiting beyond 24 hours increases the risk of the virus reaching the brain and becoming fatal. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting for 6 months, a week, or 2 weeks respectively would significantly delay treatment, allowing the virus to progress and potentially become untreatable.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following statements regarding the antigenic drift is NOT true
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because antigenic drift is not caused by the exchange of genetic information between animal and human influenza viruses. Antigenic drift is actually due to point mutations in the genes that encode for the surface proteins of the virus, leading to small changes in the antigens. These mutations can affect the hemagglutinin of both type A and B influenza viruses, making choices A and C correct. Choice D is incorrect because antigenic drift can occur in both type A and B influenza viruses, with type B being less prone to drift compared to type A.
Question 5 of 9
Tularemia is also referred to as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: rabbit fever. Tularemia is commonly known as rabbit fever due to the fact that it is often contracted through handling infected rabbits or other rodents. This zoonotic disease is caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis. Scarlet fever (A) is a streptococcal infection characterized by a rash, not related to tularemia. Strep throat (B) is a bacterial infection caused by Streptococcus bacteria and is not associated with tularemia. Cat scratch fever (C) is caused by Bartonella henselae and typically transmitted through cat scratches or bites, not related to tularemia.
Question 6 of 9
The stain used to identify bacteria with a large amount of peptidoglycan in their cell walls is the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Negative stain. Negative staining uses acidic dyes which are repelled by the bacterial cell wall components, highlighting bacteria with a large amount of peptidoglycan. Acid-fast stain (A) is used to identify Mycobacterium species with waxy cell walls. Gram stain (B) differentiates bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative based on cell wall composition. Option D is a duplicate of option C and is incorrect.
Question 7 of 9
Chlorhexidine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Chlorhexidine belongs to the group of biguanides, making choice A accurate. Step 2: It is commonly used for disinfection of hands, skin, and mucous membranes. Step 3: It has a broad spectrum of antimicrobial activity, making it widely applicable. Summary: Choice B is incorrect as chlorhexidine is not classified as an alcohol. Choice C is incorrect as chlorhexidine has various applications. Choice D is incorrect as chlorhexidine is generally safe for use with low toxicity.
Question 8 of 9
What is the associated disease for rubella virus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fifth disease. Rubella virus is associated with Fifth disease, also known as erythema infectiosum. It is caused by parvovirus B19, not rubella virus. Mumps (choice A) is caused by the mumps virus. Roseola (choice B) is caused by human herpesvirus 6 or 7. Rubeola (choice C) is the scientific name for measles, caused by the measles virus. Therefore, the correct answer is Fifth disease as it is the disease associated with rubella virus.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is not a method used by bacteria to acquire genetic material?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Binary fission. Binary fission is a method of bacterial cell division, not a method of acquiring genetic material. Transformation, conjugation, and transduction are mechanisms through which bacteria can acquire genetic material from other sources. Transformation involves the uptake of naked DNA from the environment, conjugation is the transfer of genetic material through direct cell-to-cell contact, and transduction is the transfer of genetic material via bacteriophages. Therefore, binary fission is the only option that does not involve the acquisition of new genetic material.