ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Exam Flashcards Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 12-year-old child presents with watery rhinorrhea, paroxysmal sneezing, and nasal obstruction... Which is the recommended treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Begin seasonal use of topical corticosteroids. Topical corticosteroids are the recommended treatment for allergic rhinitis in children due to their effectiveness in reducing inflammation in the nasal passages. They help alleviate symptoms such as watery rhinorrhea, sneezing, and nasal congestion by targeting the underlying inflammatory response triggered by allergens. Option A) Institute strict measures to avoid outdoor allergen exposure may help reduce symptoms, but it is often impractical to completely avoid allergen exposure, especially for outdoor allergens like pollen. Option B) Beginning seasonal use of sympathomimetic drugs may provide temporary relief of symptoms like nasal congestion, but they do not address the underlying inflammation and are not the first-line treatment for allergic rhinitis in children. Option D) Prescribing amoxicillin for 10 days is not appropriate for allergic rhinitis, as it is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not allergic reactions. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the appropriate management of allergic rhinitis in children to provide optimal care and improve patient outcomes. Topical corticosteroids are safe and effective when used as directed, making them a cornerstone in the treatment of allergic rhinitis in pediatric patients. Understanding the rationale behind the treatment options helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions and provide evidence-based care.
Question 2 of 5
Which is not a common cause of insect sting anaphylaxis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insect sting anaphylaxis is a critical topic in pediatric nursing as it can lead to life-threatening situations. The correct answer, B) Mosquitoes, is not a common cause of insect sting anaphylaxis because mosquito stings typically result in local reactions like redness and itching, rather than systemic allergic reactions. A) Honeybees are a common cause of insect sting anaphylaxis due to the venom they inject, which can trigger severe allergic reactions in susceptible individuals. C) Wasps also inject venom that can cause anaphylactic reactions in some people. D) Fire ants are known for their painful stings which can lead to allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Educationally, understanding the common causes of insect sting anaphylaxis is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide prompt and effective care in emergency situations. By knowing which insects are more likely to cause severe allergic reactions, nurses can quickly assess, intervene, and prevent escalation of symptoms in pediatric patients who experience insect stings. This knowledge can ultimately save lives and improve patient outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following can cause distributive shock
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the causes of distributive shock is crucial for providing effective care to critically ill children. Distributive shock is characterized by widespread vasodilation leading to decreased systemic vascular resistance. In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Early sepsis. Early sepsis can cause distributive shock in pediatric patients due to the release of inflammatory mediators triggering widespread vasodilation. This results in poor tissue perfusion and hypotension, leading to shock. Therefore, early recognition and prompt treatment of sepsis are essential in preventing distributive shock in pediatric patients. Option B) Tension pneumothorax causes obstructive shock due to impaired venous return from the heart, leading to decreased cardiac output. It is not a cause of distributive shock. Option C) Cardiac tamponade results in obstructive shock by compressing the heart chambers, impairing cardiac filling and output. It does not cause distributive shock. Option D) Aortic stenosis leads to obstructive shock as it obstructs blood flow out of the heart, reducing cardiac output. It is not a cause of distributive shock. Educationally, understanding the different types of shock and their etiologies is vital for nurses caring for pediatric patients. By grasping the distinct pathophysiological mechanisms underlying each type of shock, nurses can accurately assess and intervene to stabilize a child in shock. This knowledge enhances patient outcomes and underscores the importance of a systematic approach to pediatric nursing care.
Question 4 of 5
Cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborn with pulmonary oligemia and left ventricular hypertrophy is suggestive of
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Tricuspid atresia. Tricuspid atresia is a cyanotic congenital heart defect where there is a complete absence of the tricuspid valve, leading to poorly oxygenated blood mixing with oxygenated blood. This results in cyanosis. Pulmonary oligemia and left ventricular hypertrophy are indicative of decreased pulmonary blood flow and increased systemic venous return, which are characteristic findings in tricuspid atresia. Option A) Truncus arteriosus is associated with a single arterial trunk arising from the heart, leading to mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. This condition typically presents with cyanosis but not with pulmonary oligemia and left ventricular hypertrophy. Option C) Tetralogy of Fallot involves a ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy. While it also presents with cyanosis, it does not typically present with left ventricular hypertrophy or pulmonary oligemia. Option D) Transposition of the great arteries with a large ventricular septal defect (VSD) results in deoxygenated blood circulating in the systemic circulation and oxygenated blood in the pulmonary circulation. This condition does not typically present with left ventricular hypertrophy or pulmonary oligemia. Understanding the specific clinical manifestations and pathophysiology of each congenital heart defect is crucial in pediatric nursing. Recognizing these differences enables nurses to provide appropriate care, anticipate complications, and educate families effectively. This knowledge is vital for the early identification and management of congenital heart defects in newborns.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is contraindicated in the treatment of infective endocarditis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the treatment of infective endocarditis, the option D, which is the use of immunosuppressive dose of corticosteroids tapered over 4-6 weeks, is contraindicated. This is because infective endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and the use of immunosuppressive agents can worsen the infection by suppressing the body's immune response, making it harder to fight off the infectious organisms. Option A, intravenous antibiotics empiric therapy till culture results, is a common initial approach in the treatment of infective endocarditis to quickly start combating the infection while waiting for culture results to guide more specific antibiotic therapy. Option B, long-term antibiotics based on culture results (4 weeks or longer), is a standard treatment for infective endocarditis to ensure complete eradication of the infectious organisms and prevent recurrence. Option C, surgical removal of vegetation, is a valid treatment option in certain cases of infective endocarditis where large vegetations are present and pose a high risk of embolization or persistent infection despite antibiotic therapy. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind each treatment option is crucial for nursing students to make informed clinical decisions and provide safe and effective care to pediatric patients with infective endocarditis. It reinforces the importance of evidence-based practice and critical thinking in managing complex pediatric cases.