ATI RN
ABVD chemotherapy drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 12-year-old boy cuts his hand on a soda can. He has a 5-cm laceration on the palmar aspect of his hand that will require suturing. The emergency department physician injects 1% lidocaine into the wound after careful cleansing with Betadine. The mechanism of action of lidocaine blocks which of the following modalities?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lidocaine, a local anesthetic, works by blocking peripheral nervous activity. This means it inhibits the generation and conduction of nerve impulses by acting on sodium channels in nerve cell membranes. In the scenario described, lidocaine is used to numb the hand for suturing, which requires blocking nerve signals in the area to prevent pain sensation during the procedure. Option A, cerebellar function, is incorrect as lidocaine does not specifically target the cerebellum, which is primarily involved in coordinating movement and balance. Option C, pontine function, is also incorrect as lidocaine does not act on the pons, which is involved in various functions like sleep, respiration, and relay of motor information. Option D, spinal reflexes, is a distractor as lidocaine does indeed block spinal reflexes. However, the question specifically asks about the modalities that lidocaine affects, which is peripheral nervous activity in this case. Understanding the mechanism of action of drugs like lidocaine is crucial for healthcare professionals to effectively and safely administer medications, manage pain, and ensure patient comfort during medical procedures. This knowledge helps in selecting the appropriate drug for specific situations and understanding how it interacts with the body to produce the desired effects.
Question 2 of 5
A 23-year-old G1P0 woman at 34 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery floor with contractions. The contractions are intense and occurring regularly every 3 min. The physician wants to slow down the contractions and try to delay labor until betamethasone can be given. What medication would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate medication to slow down contractions and delay labor until betamethasone can be given is Ritodrine (Option D). Ritodrine is a beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist that relaxes the uterine smooth muscle, thereby inhibiting contractions. This helps in delaying preterm labor. Clomiphene (Option A) is a fertility medication used to induce ovulation and is not indicated for slowing down contractions. Dinoprostone (Option B) is a prostaglandin used to ripen the cervix and induce labor, so it would not be appropriate in this case. Ethinyl estradiol (Option C) is a synthetic estrogen and is not used to stop contractions. From an educational perspective, understanding the mechanisms of action of different medications is crucial in making appropriate clinical decisions. In obstetrics, knowing which drugs affect uterine contractions and how they work is essential in managing preterm labor effectively. It is important for healthcare providers to be knowledgeable about the appropriate and contraindicated medications in pregnancy to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
Question 3 of 5
The pain of a 57-year-old man with metastatic colorectal cancer to liver, bone, and brain is an inpatient on the oncology service. He is managed with a morphine pump. However, he has become tolerant to morphine. Which of the following might be indicated to ameliorate his pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Fentanyl. Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic that can be used in cases of opioid tolerance to manage severe pain effectively. It is often chosen in cases where patients have developed tolerance to other opioids like morphine. Fentanyl is a strong opioid that can provide rapid and potent pain relief due to its high potency. Option A) Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist and may not be as effective in managing severe pain in this context. Option B) Codeine is a weaker opioid and may not be sufficient for managing severe pain in a patient with opioid tolerance. Option D) Methadone is an opioid that can be used in cases of opioid addiction or chronic pain management but may not be the first choice in this acute scenario of severe pain due to tolerance. Educationally, understanding the different mechanisms of action, potencies, and appropriate clinical indications of various opioids is crucial for healthcare providers managing patients with cancer pain. It is essential to know which opioid to choose based on the patient's pain level, tolerance, and individual considerations to provide optimal pain control while minimizing side effects and risks.
Question 4 of 5
A 67-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after seizure-like activity. This is her first seizure and a CT scan of her head is performed. The CT scan shows numerous calcified and uncalcified cysts throughout her brain. Her husband does report that they went to a cookout that had a pig roast. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Praziquantel. The patient's presentation with multiple calcified and uncalcified cysts in the brain, along with the history of consuming undercooked pork (a common source of infection with the pork tapeworm, Taenia solium), indicates neurocysticercosis. Praziquantel is the drug of choice for treating neurocysticercosis as it effectively kills the parasitic cysts. Option A) Diethylcarbamazine is used to treat filarial infections, not neurocysticercosis. Option B) Ivermectin is commonly used to treat parasitic infections like scabies and certain types of roundworm infections, not neurocysticercosis. Option C) Mebendazole is used for treating intestinal parasitic infections such as roundworms, pinworms, and hookworms, not neurocysticercosis. Understanding the appropriate treatment for neurocysticercosis is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in regions where this parasitic infection is endemic. Recognizing the clinical presentation and selecting the correct treatment can significantly impact patient outcomes and prevent complications associated with the infection.
Question 5 of 5
A 32-year-old G2P1001 woman at 36 weeks gestation presents to the emergency room with a high fever. The fever started 2 days ago and has progressively worsened. It has been associated with chills, nausea, vomiting, and full body aches. The resident suggests starting trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole as part of the empiric coverage of her infection until blood cultures return. What side effect would be a contraindication to starting trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole in a pregnant woman?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Kernicterus. Kernicterus is a serious condition caused by the buildup of bilirubin in the brain, leading to neurological damage. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can displace bilirubin from albumin, increasing the risk of kernicterus in newborns. In this case, the pregnant woman being at 36 weeks gestation is close to term, and the concern is for the impact on the newborn. Option A) Cartilage damage in fetus is incorrect as it is associated with fluoroquinolones, not trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Option B) Discoloration of teeth is associated with tetracyclines. Option C) Gray baby syndrome is associated with chloramphenicol use in neonates, not trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Educationally, it is crucial to understand the potential side effects and contraindications of medications, especially in vulnerable populations like pregnant women. This case highlights the importance of considering both the maternal and fetal implications when making treatment decisions during pregnancy. Healthcare providers must weigh the risks and benefits of medications to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.