ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 13 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 10 year old child was subjected to Mantoux test (with tuberculin). 48 hours later a papule up to 8 mm in diameter appeared on the site of tuberculin injection. What type of hyperesponsiveness reaction has developed after tuberculin injection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperresponsiveness reaction type IV. This type of reaction, also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity, is characterized by the activation of T lymphocytes and macrophages, leading to inflammation at the site of antigen exposure. In the case of the Mantoux test, the appearance of a papule 48 hours later indicates a delayed hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells. Choice B: Reaction of Arthus phenomenon type is incorrect as this type of reaction involves immune complexes forming in the blood vessels leading to tissue damage, which is not the mechanism seen in the Mantoux test reaction. Choice C: Reaction of serum sickness type is incorrect as this type of reaction involves the formation of immune complexes in the blood leading to systemic symptoms like fever, rash, and joint pain, which is not typically seen in the Mantoux test reaction. Choice D: Atopic reaction is incorrect as atopic reactions involve IgE antibodies and mast cell degranulation, which are not the mechanisms
Question 2 of 9
Young man is hospitalized in pulmonology with complaints of dry cough, fatigue and suffocations. The anamnesis and the lab tests lead to pneumocystis pneumonia. The CD4+ cells are less than 200/mm3. What test you will order:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: For HIV. Pneumocystis pneumonia in a young man with CD4+ cells less than 200/mm3 is highly suggestive of HIV infection. HIV weakens the immune system, leading to opportunistic infections like pneumocystis pneumonia. Testing for HIV is crucial for diagnosis and appropriate management. Explanation for other choices: A: Testing for ureaplasma urealyticum is not indicated in this case as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count point towards an HIV-related infection. C: Testing for Treponema pallidum (syphilis) is not relevant in the context of a young man with pneumocystis pneumonia and low CD4+ cell count. D: Testing for Neisseria gonorrhoea is not appropriate in this scenario as the symptoms and CD4+ cell count suggest an underlying HIV infection rather than a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.
Question 3 of 9
From a medicinal herb a certain phytopathogenic microorganism was secured. In the nutrient medium it forms "fried egg"colonies. What is the most likely agent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: "Fried egg" colonies typically refer to colonies with a raised center and flattened periphery, resembling the appearance of a fried egg. Step 2: Actinomycetes are filamentous bacteria known to form "fried egg" colonies in nutrient medium. Step 3: Actinomycetes are commonly found in soil and are known to be phytopathogenic microorganisms. Step 4: Actinomycetes produce secondary metabolites with medicinal properties, making them a likely agent from a medicinal herb. Overall, the correct answer is C (Actinomycetes) as they fit the description provided in the question and are commonly associated with the given scenario. The other choices are incorrect as they do not exhibit the specific characteristics mentioned in the question or are not typically associated with forming "fried egg" colonies in nutrient medium.
Question 4 of 9
During the skill-building session in microbiology the students need to stain the prepared and fixed sputum smears obtained from a tuberculosis patient. What staining technique should be used in this case?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct staining technique for staining sputum smears from a tuberculosis patient is Ziehl-Neelsen staining. This technique uses a carbol fuchsin stain that specifically stains acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The steps involved include staining with carbol fuchsin, decolorizing with acid-alcohol, counterstaining with methylene blue, and then examining under a microscope. This staining method is crucial for detecting the acid-fast bacilli characteristic of tuberculosis. Explanation for incorrect choices: A: Gram staining is used to differentiate bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative, not suitable for acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B: Giemsa staining is used for detecting parasites and certain types of white blood cells, not specific for acid-fast bacteria. D: Burry staining is not a recognized staining technique in microbiology for staining acid-fast organisms.
Question 5 of 9
A 10 year old child was subjected to Mantoux test (with tuberculin). 48 hours later a papule up to 8 mm in diameter appeared on the site of tuberculin injection. What type of hyperesponsiveness reaction has developed after tuberculin injection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperresponsiveness reaction type IV. This type of reaction, also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity, is characterized by the activation of T lymphocytes and macrophages, leading to inflammation at the site of antigen exposure. In the case of the Mantoux test, the appearance of a papule 48 hours later indicates a delayed hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells. Choice B: Reaction of Arthus phenomenon type is incorrect as this type of reaction involves immune complexes forming in the blood vessels leading to tissue damage, which is not the mechanism seen in the Mantoux test reaction. Choice C: Reaction of serum sickness type is incorrect as this type of reaction involves the formation of immune complexes in the blood leading to systemic symptoms like fever, rash, and joint pain, which is not typically seen in the Mantoux test reaction. Choice D: Atopic reaction is incorrect as atopic reactions involve IgE antibodies and mast cell degranulation, which are not the mechanisms
Question 6 of 9
Polyclonal antibodies can respond to multiple antigens:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Polyclonal antibodies are produced by different B cells, each recognizing a different epitope on an antigen. Therefore, they can respond to multiple antigens. This diversity in recognition allows polyclonal antibodies to bind to various targets, making option A true. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the nature of polyclonal antibodies' ability to recognize multiple antigens.
Question 7 of 9
Fungi are free-living _________ organisms:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: heterotrophic. Fungi are heterotrophic organisms that obtain nutrients by absorbing organic compounds from their environment. They do not produce their own food through photosynthesis (option A: autotrophic) or chemosynthesis (option B: chemotrophic). Fungi also do not rely on light for energy (option D: phototrophic). Therefore, the correct choice is C as it accurately describes the nutritional mode of fungi.
Question 8 of 9
On a certain territory mass death of rodents was registered. It was suspected that their death might have been caused by plague. What serological reaction should be applied for quick identification of antigen of the causative agent of this epizooty?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Agglutination. During a suspected plague outbreak, agglutination testing is used to quickly identify the antigen of the causative agent. In this test, specific antibodies are added to a sample containing the suspected antigen. If the antigen is present, it will clump together (agglutinate) with the antibodies, indicating a positive result. This method is rapid and efficient for identifying the presence of the plague-causing agent. Choice A: Precipitation involves the formation of a visible precipitate when antigen and antibody react, but it is not as quick or specific as agglutination for identifying the antigen in this scenario. Choice C: Passive hemagglutination is a variation of agglutination that uses red blood cells as carriers for antigens or antibodies. While it can be useful in certain situations, it is not typically the first choice for rapid identification of plague antigen. Choice D: Complement binding is a different type of
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is known for causing dental caries (cavities)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Streptococcus mutans is known for its ability to produce acids that contribute to the demineralization of tooth enamel, leading to dental caries. Step 2: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of respiratory infections, not dental caries. Step 3: Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, a serious bacterial infection, not dental caries. Step 4: Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, a severe form of food poisoning, not dental caries. Summary: Streptococcus mutans is the correct answer as it is specifically associated with causing dental caries, while the other choices are linked to different diseases.