A 10 year old child was subjected to Mantoux test (with tuberculin). 48 hours later a papule up to 8 mm in diameter appeared on the site of tuberculin injection. What type of hyperesponsiveness reaction has developed after tuberculin injection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperresponsiveness reaction type IV. This type of reaction, also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity, is characterized by the activation of T lymphocytes and macrophages, leading to inflammation at the site of antigen exposure. In the case of the Mantoux test, the appearance of a papule 48 hours later indicates a delayed hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells. Choice B: Reaction of Arthus phenomenon type is incorrect as this type of reaction involves immune complexes forming in the blood vessels leading to tissue damage, which is not the mechanism seen in the Mantoux test reaction. Choice C: Reaction of serum sickness type is incorrect as this type of reaction involves the formation of immune complexes in the blood leading to systemic symptoms like fever, rash, and joint pain, which is not typically seen in the Mantoux test reaction. Choice D: Atopic reaction is incorrect as atopic reactions involve IgE antibodies and mast cell degranulation, which are not the mechanisms

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent of gastric ulcers. Here's the rationale: 1. Helicobacter pylori is commonly associated with gastric ulcers. 2. It is a gram-negative bacterium that grows on chocolate agar and is oxide reductase-positive. 3. The slow growth on the fifth day is characteristic of H. pylori. 4. Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter fetus are not typically associated with gastric ulcers. 5. Mycoplasma hominis is a bacterium that lacks a cell wall and is not commonly found in gastric ulcers.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Salmonella enteritidis. In this case, the presence of Gram-negative rods producing gas in the blood culture indicates a likelihood of Salmonella infection, as it is a common cause of severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and gas production. Salmonella enteritidis is a known pathogen that can cause gastroenteritis and systemic infections. Escherichia coli (choice A) can also cause similar symptoms, but it is less likely to produce gas in blood culture. Clostridium perfringens (choice C) typically causes food poisoning with rapid onset and less likely to be isolated from blood cultures. Campylobacter jejuni (choice D) is associated with gastroenteritis but is less likely to cause systemic infections with gas-producing Gram-negative rods in blood culture.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contains single-stranded RNA with negative polarity. Measles virus is an enveloped virus with a single-stranded RNA genome that is negative-sense. This means it must first be transcribed into positive-sense RNA before it can be translated. Choice A is incorrect as the measles virus does have an outer envelope. Choice C is incorrect as measles virus belongs to the family Paramyxoviridae, not Togaviridae. Choice D is incorrect as measles virus can be grown on cell cultures, specifically on Vero cells.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.