A 10-year-old child had the mantoux tuberculin test administered. 48 hours later a papule up to 8 mm in diameter appeared on the site of the injection. What type of hypersensitivity reaction developed after the tuberculin injection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction is characterized by a delayed response involving T cells. In this case, the appearance of a papule after 48 hours indicates a delayed hypersensitivity reaction, which is typical of a Type IV reaction. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Arthus phenomenon is a localized immune complex-mediated reaction, not seen in tuberculin tests. C: Seroreaction typically involves antibodies reacting with soluble antigens, not seen in this scenario. D: Type II hypersensitivity reactions involve antibodies targeting specific cells or tissues, which is not the mechanism at play in this case.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Measles. Immunosuppressive drugs are not used for treating viral infections like measles as they target the immune system and can worsen the infection. Organ transplantation requires immunosuppressive drugs to prevent organ rejection. Autoimmune diseases involve an overactive immune response, so immunosuppressive drugs are used to reduce this response. Hemolytic disease of the newborn can be treated with immunosuppressive drugs to prevent the destruction of red blood cells.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (20 min) because Escherichia coli typically has a generation time of around 20 minutes, meaning the time it takes for a bacterial population to double. This rapid reproduction rate is a key characteristic of E. coli. Option B (60 min) is incorrect as it is longer than the usual generation time. Option C (20 hours) is too long for E. coli's generation time. Option D (24 hours) is also incorrect as it is much longer than the typical generation time of E. coli.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: metronidazole. Metronidazole is specifically effective against protozoan infections due to its ability to target and disrupt the DNA of the parasites. It is commonly used to treat infections such as trichomoniasis and giardiasis that affect the reproductive system. Ampicillin (A) and tetracycline (B) are antibiotics that target bacteria, not protozoa. Ciprofloxacin (C) is also an antibiotic that is effective against certain bacterial infections but not protozoan infections. Therefore, metronidazole is the most appropriate choice for fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obligate aerobes. These bacteria require oxygen for their survival and growth. They utilize oxygen in their metabolic processes and cannot survive in the absence of oxygen. Choice A, obligate anaerobes, cannot survive in the presence of oxygen. Choice B, facultative anaerobes, can switch between aerobic and anaerobic metabolism based on oxygen availability. Choice D, aerotolerant anaerobes, can tolerate the presence of oxygen but do not require it for their growth. Therefore, the most appropriate term for bacteria that require oxygen for survival is obligate aerobes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proteus vulgaris. This is because Proteus species are non-lactose-fermenting Gram-negative rods that are known to produce gas in nutrient broths. Proteus vulgaris is commonly associated with urinary tract infections and can also cause abdominal infections. A: Salmonella typhi typically causes typhoid fever and is not known to produce gas in nutrient broths. B: Shigella dysenteriae is a causative agent of dysentery and does not typically produce gas in nutrient broths. C: Escherichia coli is a lactose-fermenting bacterium and does not fit the description of the organism in the stool culture.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antitoxic serum. In the neutralization reaction to identify botulinum toxin, antitoxic serum is used to neutralize the toxin in white mice. Antitoxic serum contains antibodies that specifically target and neutralize the botulinum toxin. Normal serum (B) does not contain the necessary antibodies to neutralize the toxin. Antibacterial serum (C) is not effective against toxins like botulinum. Diagnosticum (D) is a general term and does not specifically refer to the biological product required for this reaction.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria listed are capable of producing exotoxins that can cause severe diarrhea. Escherichia coli can produce toxins that lead to diarrhea. Clostridium botulinum produces a neurotoxin causing botulism, which can also result in diarrhea. Vibrio cholerae is known for producing cholera toxin, a potent exotoxin that causes severe watery diarrhea. The other choices are incorrect because each bacterium listed is capable of producing a toxin that can cause diarrhea.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Non-tender chancre (ulcus durum). In the primary stage of syphilis, an individual typically develops a painless ulcer known as a chancre at the site of infection. This ulcer is usually firm, round, and clean with well-defined borders. It is important to note that it is non-tender, which distinguishes it from other skin conditions. This characteristic helps healthcare providers differentiate syphilis from other sexually transmitted infections. Explanation for other choices: A: Diffuse maculopapular rash - This is more commonly associated with secondary syphilis. B: Purulent exudation from the urethra - This is not a typical presentation of primary syphilis. C: Syphilitic granulomas (gummas) - Gummas typically develop in the tertiary stage of syphilis, not in the primary stage.