Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Microbiology Chapter 12 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 10-year-old child had the mantoux tuberculin test administered. 48 hours later a papule up to 8 mm in diameter appeared on the site of the injection. What type of hypersensitivity reaction developed after the tuberculin injection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction is characterized by a delayed response involving T cells. In this case, the appearance of a papule after 48 hours indicates a delayed hypersensitivity reaction, which is typical of a Type IV reaction. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Arthus phenomenon is a localized immune complex-mediated reaction, not seen in tuberculin tests. C: Seroreaction typically involves antibodies reacting with soluble antigens, not seen in this scenario. D: Type II hypersensitivity reactions involve antibodies targeting specific cells or tissues, which is not the mechanism at play in this case.

Question 2 of 5

On the 8th day since the patient was inoculated with antitetanic serum because of dirty wound of his foot he has developed rising temperature up to 380% , pains in the joints, rash and itch. The blood tests revealed leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Allergic reaction of what type has developed in this case?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immunocomplex. In this case, the patient's symptoms of fever, joint pains, rash, and itch along with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia indicate a serum sickness reaction. This is a type III hypersensitivity reaction where antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. The symptoms typically occur 1-2 weeks after exposure to the antigen. Anaphylactic reaction (choice A) is immediate and involves IgE antibodies. Cytotoxic reaction (choice B) involves destruction of cells by antibodies. Delayed hypersensitivity (choice C) usually takes 48-72 hours to develop and involves T-cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the symptoms and timeline of a type III hypersensitivity reaction.

Question 3 of 5

Another term for spontaneous generation is __________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: abiogenesis. Spontaneous generation refers to the idea that living organisms can arise from non-living matter, which was disproven by Louis Pasteur. Abiogenesis specifically refers to the origin of life from non-living matter, making it synonymous with spontaneous generation. Biogenesis (A) is the principle that living organisms only come from other living organisms. Evolution (C) is the process of gradual change in species over time. Spontaneity (D) refers to happening without external cause and is not directly related to the concept of spontaneous generation.

Question 4 of 5

A 65-year-old patient with fever and a productive cough had a sputum sample revealing Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacteria. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Klebsiella pneumoniae. This bacterium is commonly associated with pneumonia in elderly patients. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacterium that frequently causes pneumonia in individuals with underlying health conditions. It is known for its ability to produce a distinctive mucoid capsule. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (B) is more commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. Escherichia coli (C) is a common cause of urinary tract infections but is less likely in this case due to the symptoms and sputum sample results. Haemophilus influenzae (D) is another common respiratory pathogen, but in this scenario, Klebsiella pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent based on the patient's age, symptoms, and the characteristics of the bacteria described in the sputum sample.

Question 5 of 5

Gram (+) bacteria ... MG-ribonucleate and Mg. deoxyribonucleate in:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, proportion 4:1. Gram (+) bacteria have a higher ratio of MG-ribonucleate to Mg. deoxyribonucleate because ribosomal RNA is more abundant in actively growing bacterial cells. This higher proportion of MG-ribonucleate to Mg. deoxyribonucleate is essential for protein synthesis and growth. The other choices are incorrect because they do not reflect the higher ratio of ribosomal RNA to DNA in Gram (+) bacteria, which is crucial for their metabolic activities and cellular functions.

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